Breathing and Respiration, Exchange of Gases - long answer questions for Entrance Exams and Admission Tests

Hi Friends,

Welcome back to India Study Solution (www.indiastudysolution.com)
You have landed among a series of some very important, carefully selected basic and advanced Very Short type, Medium and then Long Answer type questions followed by our very popular result-oriented India Study Solution MCQ Test Series with their answers and solutions from Biology Chapter - HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY (Breathing and Respiration, Exchange of Gases).
If you are preparing for any Medical Entrance Exam like NEET, MCAT etc. then please don't skip any question/series. Please go through the previous questions too in our earlier posts through the links given below. 

If you haven't then Subscribe us to keep yourself updated. It's FREE (Subscribe button is given)
Follow us in Facebook and Twitter

Covering Syllabus: Respiratory organs in animals (recall only); Respiratory system in humans; Mechanism of breathing and its regulation in humans-Exchange of gases, transport of gases and regulation of respiration Respiratory volumes; Disorders related to respiration-Asthma, Emphysema, Occupational respiratory disorders.

HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY (Breathing and Respiration, Exchange of Gases)
India Study Solution Zoology Long Answer Theoretical Questions 

TQ 4 (Q. No.68-71)

• For Q. No. 1-30 click : Biology Objective Very Short Answer Type Questions - Breathing and Respiration,Exchange of Gases 
• For Q. No. 31-60 click : Breathing and Respiration, Exchange of Gases - Biology Objective Questions for NEET-UG, AIPMT, MBBS and Dental admission tests 
• For Q. No. 61-67 click : Breathing and Respiration, Exchange of Gases - Short answer Biology objective questions for NEET-UG, MBBS admission tests and similar exams 
• For Q. No. 72-75 click : Breathing and Respiration, Exchange of Gases - very long answer questions

Solved Long Answer Type Biology Questions (Zoology)

Question: 68: Write the role of diaphragm in the breathing process.

Solution 68: 

Breathing:  Intake of fresh air from environment and expulsion of fowl air from lungs is called breathing, so there are two steps in breathing:

1.       Inspiration

2.       Expiration

Inspiration: 

1.       Intake of fresh air.

2.       It is an active process.

3.       Completes in 2 sec.

Inspiration occurs by contraction in inspiratory muscles, which are of two types:

(i). Radial muscles of diaphragm.

(ii). EICM. 

When radial muscles contract diaphragm become flattened in shaped so volume of thoracic cavity increase between anterior and posterior surface.

When EICM contract sternum comes outward and ribs goes upward. By the contraction in both muscles volume of thoracic cavity increase and intrapulmonary pressure, decrease by 1-3 mm Hg. Therefore, environmental air enters into lungs through respiratory tract called inspiration. 

Expiration:

1.       Expulsion is flow of air.

2.       It is a passive process.

3.       It takes 3 sec.

4.       Expiration occurs by relaxation in inspiratory muscles.

5.       By relaxation in radial muscles diaphragm become normal dome- shape.

6.       When EICM relax, then ribs and sternum comes to their normal position.

So, by relaxation on both muscles volume of thoracic cavity decrease and intrapulmonary pressure increase by 1-3 mm Hg. Therefore, expulsion of air occurs through respiratory tract called expiration.

Question: 69: What is partial pressure? How does it help in gaseous exchanges during respiration?

Solution 69: The pressure of a particular gas among the pressure of all the gases is called partial pressure. Gases move according to the pressure gradient from the higher partial pressure to lower partial pressure as follows -

Question: 70: What is chloride shift?

Solution 70:  As more carbon dioxide enters into the RBC, concentration of bicarbonates in RBC is more than in plasma. Thus bicarbonate ions diffuse quickly from the RBCs into the plasma, where they are carried to the lungs. To counter balance the rapid outrush of negative bicarbonate ions from the RBCs, chloride ions (Cl^–) move from the plasma into the erythrocytes. This ionic exchange process is called the Chloride Shift. After the chloride shift, potassium bicarbonate and potassium chloride are formed in the RBC while NaCl and NaHCO₃ are formed in the plasma.

In the lungs, the process is reversed. As blood moves through the pulmonary capillaries, its PCO₂ declines from 45 mm Hg to 40 mm Hg (and respectively from 54 vol% to 49 vol%). For this to occur, carbon dioxide must first be freed from its “bicarbonate housing.” Bicarbonate ions re-enter the RBCs (and chloride ions move into the plasma) and bind with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid, which is then split by carbonic anhydrase to release carbon dioxide and water. This carbon dioxide, along with that released from haemoglobin and from solution in plasma, and then diffuses along its partial pressure gradient from the blood into the alveoli. This total process is referred as Hamburger phenomena.    

Question: 71: Explain the terms: tidal volume, vital capacity and residual volume in relationship to respiration.

Solution 71: VC = IRV + ERV + TV

= 3000 + 1100 + 500

= 4600 ml.   

 Breathing and Respiration, Exchange of Gases - More Practice Questions    

<<Prev (Q.No 61 - 67)                           (Q.No 72 - 75) Next>>

Work, Energy and Power - Solved Test Series, Questions Bank for NEET, AIIMS, JEE Main and Advanced, NEST, Admission Tests

India Study Solution - Physics Guide 

Work, Energy and Power

In continuation of Test Series Set 1 (Q. No. 1-10) and Test Series Set 2 (Q. No. 11-20), Test Series Set 4 (Q. No. 31-40) here you have carefully selected 10 MCQ practice questions with hints & solutions (given at the end) from the Physics chapter - Work, Energy and Power.

Syllabus for IITJEE, NEET:                                                                      

Work done by a constant force and by a variable force, Unit of Work, Energy and Power, Work Energy, Theorem. Elastic and in-elastic collisions in one and two dimensions, Notions of Work and Energy, Law of Conservation of Energy, Potential and Kinetic Energies, Gravitational Potential Energy, and its conversion to Kinetic energy, Potential Energy of a spring. Conservative and Non-conservative Forces, Different forms of Energy, Three types of Equilibrium, Mass-Energy equivalence. Power.   

India Study Solution

Solved MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)

Question 21: A particle is projected at 60^O to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest point is,  

a. K     b. Zero

c. K/4  d. K/2  

Question 22: Two springs with spring constants k₁ and k₂ (k1 ¹ k₂) are extended by the same force. If their elastic potential energies are U₁ and U₂, then, U₂ will be -

Question 23: A particle of mass 0.1kg is subjected to a force that varies with distance as shown in the adjacent diagram. If the particle starts its journey from rest at x = 0, its velocity at x = 12m will be -

a. 0 m/s           b. 20√2 m/s  

c. 20√3 m/s     d. 40 m/s  

Question 24: A ball released from a height 20m, hits the ground and rebounds to a height of 16m. The percentage loss of energy during collision is, 

a. 20%  b. 40%  c. 25%  d. 75%.  

Question 25: A block of mass 50kg is projected horizontally on a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the block and the floor is 0.1. The block strikes a light spring of stiffness k = 100N/m with a velocity 2m/s. The maximum compression of the spring is,  

a. 1m    b. 2m

c. 3m    d. 4m  

Question 26: A uniform meter scale of mass 2kg is suspended from one end. If it is displaced through an angle 60^O from the vertical, the increase in its potential energy is,  

a. 4.9J   b. 9.8J   c. 9.8√3J   d. 4.9(2 – √3)J  

Question 27: A rigid body of mass ‘m’ is moving in a circle of radius ‘r’ with a constant speed ‘v’. The force on the body is mv²/r and is directed towards the center. What will be the work done by this force in moving the body over half the circumference of the circle.

Question 28: A ball ‘A’ is released from rest when the block ‘B’ is on the ground (see adjacent fig.). For the block ‘B’ of mass ‘M’ to remain in contact with ground, the minimum mass of ‘A’ must be -

a. 2M     b. M

c. M/2    d. None of these.  

Question 29: A body of mass 1kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20ms^–1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g = 10ms^–2)  

a. 20J    b. 30J

c. 40J    d. 10J  

Question 30: A ball is released from certain height and rebounds after hitting the ground. If it loses 50% of its KE on striking the ground then it will attain a height again equal to -

a. one fourth of the initial height

b. three fourth of the initial height

c. half of the initial height

d. none of these.  

Download Hints / Answers

 Work, Energy and Power  - More Practice Questions, Test Series 

<<Previous (Q.No 11-20)                                     (Q.No 31-40) Next>>

NEET 2019 Alert: 86 Examination Centres changed by NTA, check and download revised Admit Card

Update 04-May-19: National Eligibility cum Entrance Test, NEET 2019 has been postponed for the state of Odisha. It is confirmed. Students may please note that NEET 2019 examination has been cancelled for the examination centres in Odisha. The schedule for the NEET 2019 examination for all the other state, however, remains unchanged. For official notification visit ntaneet.nic.in. Students may please note that only the exam has been cancelled only for the centres in the state of Odisha. In case a student for Odisha, who is not currently in Odisha and has a centre in any other state, the examinaton would be conducted as per the schedule - which is tomorrow. 

Posted 03-May-19: 

Yesterday, National Testing Agency (NTA) has released an important notice regarding the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test or NEET 2019 examination centres.

As per the notice, due to the General Elections to Lok Sabha and other unavoidable circumstances, some 86 examination centres have been changed by NTA. The revised list has been released on ntaneet.nic.in.

All students are advised to check and confirm whether he/she has been affected due to this change and accordingly download their revised NEET 2019 Admit Card from ntaneet.nic.in now.

Students who have been affected by the change are being informed via SMS, email or voice message by appropriate authority. The admit card link is still active. NEET 2019 is scheduled for this Sunday – May 5, 2019.
Article continues after Ad - 

Students may please note that candidates would not be allowed to enter wrong examination centres nor would they be allowed to enter with old admit cards. Hence all the students appearing National Eligibility cum Entrance Test  2019 are advised to please check the revised list of examination centres provided in the NTA official notice by clicking on the link given below and accordingly download their revised admit cards for  NEET 2019. 

Official List of Revised ExaminationCentres by NTA for NEET 2019

Diversity in The Living World, Biological Classification: Solved Test Series with MCQ Objective Questions for NEET, Medical Entrance Exams, Tests

Biology Solutions, Solved Test Series, Questions Bank (Practice Questions) for NEET, AIIMS, NTA, NEST

Here you will get very important and most carefully prepared 10 MCQ objective questions in our each Biology Test Series with hints & solutions (given at the end) from the various topics of the unit: Diversity in The Living World - Biological Classification

All these are typically important questions for NEET-UG, AIIMS, JIPMER, COMEDK, MBBS Admission Tests, Medical / Dental Entrance Exams, NEST and other such competitive exams.

India Study Solution

The Living World and Biological Classification

Solved MCQ Test Series – Set 5 (Q. No. 41 - 50)

Question 41: In Whittaker classification, algae are included in how many kingdoms

a. 3    b. 2    c. 4    d. All the five kingdoms

Question 42: ‘Taxon’ is the unit of

a. Order    b. Taxonomy    c. Species    d. Genus

Question 43: Protists having non-contractile pusule are

a. Sporozoans    b. Ciliates    c. Dinoflagellates    d. Navicula

Question 44: The stage in which the viral genome gets integrated with the bacterial genome is called

a. Prophage    b. Provirus    c. Adsorption    d. Lysogeny

Question 45: Spicules of class calcarea are –

a. Calcium carbonate

b. Silica

c. Spongin fibre

d. None

Questions continues after Ad -

Question 46: Which is not a category?

a. Phylum    b. Species    c. Poaceae    d. Class

Question 47: Organism which are found in fresh water as well as in marine environment, they are microscopic and float passively in water current (plankton). Most of them are photosynthetic. The cell form two thin overlapping shell, which fit together as in a soap box.

Organism which possess above character are

a. Dinoflagellates    b. Chrysophytes    c. Diatoms    d. b and c both

Question 48: Kingdom Monera was established by

a. Dougherty    b. Copeland    c. Stanier    d. Heckle

Question 49: The symmetry found in mollusc is:

a. Bilateral    b. Asymmetrical    c. Biradial    d. Radial

(1) a and c    (2) b and c    (3) d and a    (4) a and b

Question 50: Which organisms are not included in the five kingdom system of classification?

a. Protozoans    b. Viruses    c. Lichens    d. Both b and c

India Study Solution

https://www.indiastudysolution.com

Biology Solutions for NEET, AIPMT, JIPMER, Medical Entrance Exams

Biology: The Living World and Biological Classification

Answers of MCQ Objective Test Series – Set 5 (Q. No. 41 – 50)

Answer 41: (a).   Answer 42: (b).   Answer 43: (b). Answer 44: (d).   Answer 45: (a).   Answer 46: (c).Answer 47: (b).   Answer 48: (b).   Answer 49: (4). Answer 50: (d).

 Diversity in the Living World, Biological Classification - Objective Test Series 

<<Prev (Q.No 31 - 40)                   (Q.No 51 - 60) Next>>

Check Biology Guide for NEET (AIIMS), MBBS / Dental Admission Tests, Medical Entrance Exams click - 

• Biology Solutions - Free online guide, solved practice questions, test series, study material for preparing NTA NEET, Medical and Dental Entrance Exams, MBBS Admission Tests 

Recommended Study links 

• PHYSICS SOLUTION - Free online Test Series, Practice Questions, Notes and Guide for all Engineering, Medical Entrance Exams, JEE Main and Advanced (IIT), NEET (AIIMS, JIPMER)
• Chemistry Solutions - Solved Test Series, Questions Bank, Notes plusStudy Materials for NEET (AIIMS, JIPMER), JEE Main, JEE Advanced (IIT), NEST, MBBS Admission Tests 

Structure of Atoms - India Study Solution Test Series, Questions Bank with Hints and Solutions for NEET-UG (AIIMS, JIPMER), JEE Main (IIT), NEST

Structure of Atoms | Atomic Structure

Solved MCQ Test Series for NTA-NEET, JEE Main & Advanced, IIT, AIIMS, JIPMER, WBJEE, BITSAT : Structure of Atoms (Atomic Structure)

Here you get carefully prepared another Set of 10 MCQ practice questions (Q.No.31 - 40) in our each Test Series with hints & solutions (given at the end) from the Chemistry chapter - Structure of Atoms.

Go to previous Test Series:

AtomicStructure or Structure of Atoms - Solved Test Series Set 3 (Question 21 - 30)

Practising with our test series questions will certainly enhance your level of confidence for NEET-UG, JEE Main & Advanced (IIT) AIIMS, JIPMER, COMEDK, WBJEE, MBBS Admission Tests, Engineering Entrance Exams, NEST and other such competitive exams.

Syllabus:

Sub-atomic Particles; Discovery of Fundamental Particles; Cathode Rays; Positive Rays; Rutherford Model; Moseley Experiment - Atomic Number; Isotopes and Isobars; Concept of Shells and Sub-shells; Electromagnetic Radiations; Emission Spectra; Hydrogen Spectrum; Atomic Models; Bohr’s Model of Atom; Sommerfeld’s Extension of Bohr Theory; Dual Nature of Matter and Light; Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle; Wave Mechanical Model of Atom; Concept of Orbital; Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom; Shapes of s, p and d Orbitals; Pauli’s Exclusion Principle; Aufbau Principlr; Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity (Orbital Diagrams); Electronic Configuration of Elements; Photoelectric Effect; Nuclear Stability; The Whole Number Rule and Packing Fraction; The Magic Numbers.  
     

ISS Chemistry Solutions: Atomic Structure | Structure of Atoms

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ Test Series) – Set 4 (Q. No.31-40)

Question 31: Among the first lines of Lyman, Balmer, Paschen and Brackett series in hydrogen atomic spectra, which has higher energy?

a. Lyman

b. Balmer

c. Paschen

d. Brackett

Question 32: What will be the longest wavelength line in Balmer series of spectrum?

a. 546 nm

b. 656 nm

c. 566 nm

d. 556 nm

Question 33: If the electronic configuration of nitrogen had 1s⁷, it would have energy lower than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s²2s²2p³ because the electrons would be closer to the nucleus. Yet 1s⁷ is not observed because it violates:

a. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

b. Hund’s rule

c. Pauli’s exclusion principle

d. Bohr postulates of stationary orbits

Question 34: Calculate wavelength of 3^rd line of Brackett series in hydrogen spectrum

Question 35: The ratio of 2^nd, 4^th and 6^th orbits of hydrogen atom is:

a. 2: 4: 6

b. 1: 4: 9

c. 1: 4: 6

d. 1: 2: 3

Question 36: Among the following which one is not paramagnetic? [Atomic numbers; Be = 4, Ne = 10, As = 33, Cl = 17]

a. Ne²⁺

b. Be⁺

c. Cl^-

d. As⁺

Question 37: The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made by –

a. Planck

b. Einstein

c. Bohr

d. Heisenberg

Question 38: Total number of spectral lines in UV region, during transition from 5^th excited state to 1^st excited state

a. 10

b. 3

c. 4

d. Zero

Question 39: A helium molecule is moving with a velocity of 2.40 x 10² ms^-1 at 300k. The de-Broglie wavelength is about

a. 0.416 nm

b. 0.83 nm

c. 803 Å

d. 8000 Å

Question 40: Which of the following does not form a part of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom?

a. Energy of the electron in the orbit is quantized

b. The electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus has the lowest energy

c. Angular momentum of the electrons in the orbit is quantised

d. The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determined simultaneously

India Study Solution - Solved Chemistry Objective Test Series

Atomic Structure (Structure of Atoms)

Solutions of Multiple Choice Questions Test Series (MCQ) – Set 4 (Q. No. 31 – 40)

https://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 31: (a).   Answer 32: (b).   Answer 33: (c).   Answer 34: (a).   Answer 35: (b).   Answer 36: (c).   Answer 37: (c).   Answer 38: (d).   Answer 39: (a).   Answer 40: (d).

Atomic Structure | Structure of Atoms - More Practice Questions 

<<Prev (Q.No 21 - 30)                   (Q.No 41 - 50) Next>>

Check Chemistry Guide for JEE Main & Advanced (IIT), NEET (AIIMS, JIPMER), NEST, MBBS Admission Tests click - 

• CHEMISTRY SOLUTION - Free online Test Series Questions with hints & solutions, Study Materials for NEET (AIIMS, JIPMER), JEE Main, JEE Advanced (IIT), NEST, MBBS Admission Tests 

Recommended Study links 

• PHYSICS SOLUTION - Free online Test Series, Practice Questions, Notes and Guide for all Engineering, Medical Entrance Exams, JEE Main and Advanced (IIT), NEET (AIIMS, JIPMER)
• BIOLOGY SOLUTION - Study Materials, Solved Test Series for NEET (AIIMS, JIPMER) and other MBBS Entrance Exams, Admission Tests