EduNews: Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Board announced revised date for WBJEE-2019

Updated: 23-12-2018
West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam (WBJEE 2019) for admission to engineering and pharmacy colleges will be held on May 26, 2019.

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"Paper-I (math) will be held in the first half, from 11am to 1pm. Paper-II (physics & chemistry) will be held in the second half, from 2pm to 4pm," board chairman Malayendu Saha said. The results of WBJEE - 2019 are likely to be published on July 2.
WBJEE 2019 dates have been changed twice.

Saha had said the board was likely to hold the test on April 21, 2019, while releasing the results of this year's exam in May.
On December 12, the exam date was fixed on May 19, assuming the Lok Sabha polls and the results would be declared by then.
On Monday, the board said the dates would be revised because of the JEE (Advanced) on May 19.
This year, the exam was held on April 22 and the results were announced on May 23.
The board has announced that applications can be filed and fees paid online from December 26.
"The classes start on August 1. We will take steps to ensure the online counselling is held in a way that the session starts on time," board chairman Saha said.
The board holds several rounds of online counselling and students are admitted after each round.
This year, the online counselling began in the first week of June.
The board this year had held mock counselling across 33 centres to explain the concept of online counselling.
Now after this unusual delay in taking exam, some doubt is quite apparent if the WBJEE board will hold such mock counselling next year for WBJEE 2020.

Schedule for WBJEE - 2019

Date of Exam: 26th May 2019 (Sunday)
On-Line Registration: 26th Dec 2018 to 22nd Jan2019 (5 p.m.)
Registration through Website:
For information bulletin of WBJEE-2019 and other details please visit the board website: /

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EduNews: WBJEE 2019 date to change


West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination (WBJEE) board has decided to revise the examination date for WBJEE-2019. The JEE board will announce the new date soon. 
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The West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam board had initially announced to hold the entrance test (WBJEE 2019) for admission to engineering colleges and pharmacy institutes on 21st April 2019 next year. But an announcement uploaded on the board's website on December 12 said that the test would be held on 19th May 2019 instead.
The latest notice on the website declares that "the date of WBJEE-2019 examination will be reconsidered and the new date will be announced shortly". The JEE Advanced 2019 examination is scheduled for 19th May 2019.
"The new dates will be announced soon," JEE board chairman Malayendu Saha said on Monday.
Saha had, while announcing the results of the WBJEE 2018 in May, said WBJEE 2019 exam was likely be held on April 21 in 2019.
"We have tentatively fixed April 21, 2019, which is a Sunday," Saha had said.
Now the exam has been deferred to May 19, assuming that the general election results would be out by then as the five-year term of the Lok Sabha ends on May 19, an official said.
This year, the exam was held on April 22 and the results were announced on May 23.
Online application and payment of fees for WBJEE 2019 will begin on December 26. "The forms can be submitted online till 5pm on January 22, 2019. Corrections can be made online and a revised confirmation page downloaded from January 23 to January 25," JEE board chairman Saha said.
The downloadable admit cards were to be published on May 7, 2019.
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Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties | India Study Solution

Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Solved Questions Bank and MCQ Test Series – Set 4 (Q. No 31-40)

Fully solved practice questions (MCQ Test Series) for on Classification of Elements, Periodic Table and Periodicity in Properties for IIT JEE, NEET, Class 12 Board Exams and other competitions.

Chemistry Test Series: Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

For previous and next questions click on the links below:
<<Prev (Q.No 21 - 30)                                (Q.No 41-50) Next>>

India Study Solution Test Series – Set 4 (Q. No. 31-40)

Question 31: In which of the following compound Mn shows minimum radius?
a. MnO2    b. KMnO4    c. MnO   d. None of these

Question 32: The values of IE(I), IE(II), IE(III), and IE(IV), of an atom are respectively 7.5 eV, 25.6 eV, 48.6 eV and 170.6 eV. The electronic configuration of the atom will be:
a. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1          b. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
c. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3    d. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

Question 33: The total number of elements known are:
a. 92    b. 117    c. 100    d. 118

Question 34: With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?
a. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3   b.1s2, 2s2, 2p5, 3s1
c. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6     d. 1s2, 2s2, 2p5

Question 35: The longest and shortest periods are
a. 1 & 6    b. 2 & 6    c. 6 & 1    d. 1 & 7

Question 36: Pick the incorrect statement about the factors affecting ionization energy
a. Half-filled or full-filled atomic orbitals have high ionization energy
b. More is the shielding of valence electrons more is the ionization energy
c. Larger is the atomic radii lower is ionization energy
d. Ionization enthalpy  effective nuclear charge

Question 37: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. Generally the radius trend and the ionization energy trend across a period are opposites
b. Metallic and covalent radii of potassium are 2.3 Å and 2.03 Å respectively
c. Amongst Li-, Be-, B- and C-, Li- is least stable ion
d. Atomic and ionic radii of Niobium and Tantalum are almost same

Question 38: Which of the following has largest radius?
a. O2-   b. Mg2+   c. Na+   d. F-

Question 39: Among the following Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is
a. Mg < Ca < Cl < P   b. Cl < P < Mg < Ca
c. P < Cl < Ca < Mg   d. Ca < Mg < P < Cl

Question 40: The starting element of fifth period is
a. K   b. Rb   c. Kr   d. Xe

Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Hint & Solutions of Test Series Questions Set 4 (Q. No. 31 - 40)

Answer 31: (b) (Hint: IAs oxidation state of central metal ion increases, the electron to proton ratio decreases and therefore, size of ion decreases. In KMnO4, Mn is in + 7 O.S. So, due to maximum +ve charge radius will be lowest)
Answer 32: (b) Answer 33: (b) Answer 34: (b) Answer 35: (c) Answer 36: (b)
Answer 37: (c)
[Hint: a. Across the period, size decreases as electrons are added in the same shell and nuclear charge increases by one unit for addition of each successive element. In contrary, the ionization energy increases as size of atom decreases and nuclear charge increases. 
b. rmetallic > rcovalent (covalent bond formation involves the overlapping of orbitals). 
c. 3Li- - 1s2 2s2 completely filled stable configuration, so more stable. 4Be- - 1s2 2s2 2p1. 5B- - 1s2 2s2 2p2. 6C- - 1s2 2s2 2p3 half-filled stable configuration, so more stable.
d. Due to lanthanide contraction]
Answer 38: (a)  Answer 39: (b)  Answer 40: (b)

 Classification of Elements, Periodic Table - Practice Questions Bank | Test Series  

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Prepare Physics at Home | Solved Practice Questions, Test Series on Gravitation | NEET NTA | JEE Main


NEET NTA, JEE MAIN - Physics Preparation   
Physics solved MCQ test series and practice questions with answers from the chapter “Gravitation”. Prepare at home (Ghar Baithe Taiyari Kare) for NTA NEET, JEE Main, all national and state level engineering and medical entrance exams.

Gravitation (Topics / Syllabus)
Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Laws of Gravitation - the universal law of gravitation. Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with altitude and depth. Gravitational Forces. Gravitational potential energy and Field; Escape velocity, orbital velocity of a satellite. Geostationary satellites. Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits.

Physics Practice Questions: Gravitation
India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21 - 30)

Question 21: If the change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of earth is the same as at a depth d below it (both h and d are much smaller than the radius of the earth), then:
a. d = h    b. d = 2h    c. d = h/2    d. d = h2

Question 22: The weight of a body will appear to be zero when
a. It is kept at the centre of the earth
b. It is freely falling
c. It is inside the satellites orbiting around the earth
d. All of these

Question 23: A satellite launching station should be
a. Near the equator region
b. Near the polar region
c. On the polar axis
d. On any place

Question 24: For the moon to cease to remain the earth’s satellite, its orbital velocity has to increase by a factor –
a. 2    b. √2    c. 1/√2    d. √3

Question 25: What will be the formula of mass of the earth in terms of g, R and G?

Question 26: Gravitational force between a point mass m and M separated by a distance is F. Now, if a point mass 2m is placed next to m in contact with it, the force on M due to m and the total force on M are:
a. 2F, F    b. F, 2F    c. F, 3F    d. F, F

Question 27: The distances of Neptune and Saturn from the sun are nearly 1013 and 1012 meters respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their periodic times will be in the ratio –
a. √10    b. 100    c. 10√10    d. 1/√10

Question 28: Which of the following graphs shows the variation of acceleration due to gravity g with depth h from the surface of the earth?
(1) (a)    (2) (b)    (3) (c)    (4) (d)

Question 29: A satellite is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit with a uniform speed. If the gravitational force suddenly disappears, then the satellite will
a. Continue to move in the same orbit with that speed
b. Move tangentially to the orbit with that speed
c. Move away from the earth normally to the orbit
d. Fall down on the earth

Question 30: A satellite can be in a geostationary orbit around a planet at a distance r from the centre of the planet. If the angular velocity of the planet about its axis doubles, a satellite can now be in a geostationary orbit around the planet if its distance from the centre of the planet is –

 Gravitation More Questions Answers  

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EduNews: JEE Main 2019 by NTA - Online Registration, Eligibility, Exam Date, Pattern, Admit card, Results and Preparation


What are JEE Main and JEE Advanced
NTA JEE Main 2019 - representative image
JEE or Joint Entrance Examination is a national level engineering entrance exam for getting admissions into engineering colleges across India. Till 2011, All India Engineering Entrance Examination (AIEEE) used to be conducted by CBSE every year. In the year 2012, CBSE announced the replacement of IIT JEE and AIEEE with Joint Entrance Examination (JEE). The AIEEE was replaced by JEE Main to facilitate admissions in 31 NITs, 20 IIITs and 18 other CFTIs (Centrally Funded Technical Institutes) while IIT JEE was replaced by JEE Advanced to facilitate admissions in the 23 IITs (Indian Institute of Technology) and ISM Dhanbad. From 2019 instead of CBSE, JEE Main will be conducted twice a year in the month of January and April respectively by National Testing Agency (NTA). If a candidate achieves a certain cut-off score which is decided every year, in JEE Main then he or she qualifies for JEE Advanced. Qualification in JEE Main is not the only criteria for selection as the candidate should have secured at least 75 per cent marks in the 12th class examination, or be in the top 20 percentile in the 12th class examination conducted by the respective Boards. For SC/ST candidates the qualifying marks would be 65 per cent in the 12th class examination.
National Test Agency (NTA) has released the notification for Joint Entrance Examination, JEE Main 2019. Students interested in applying for admissions to undergraduate B.Tech, BE and B.Arch courses are required to fill the JEE Main 2019 online application.
Eligibility for NTA JEE Main 2019
For BE/B.Tech: The student must have passed 10+2 examination with Physics and Mathematics as compulsory subjects along with Chemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/ Technical Vocational subject.
For B.Arch/B.Planning: The student must have passed 10+2 with Mathematics as one of the subjects.
Age Criteria: General category candidates – born on or after 1st of October 1994. SC, ST, and PwD category candidates – born on or after 1st of October 1989.
To know more about Online Registration, Eligibility, Exam Date, Pattern, Admit card, Results and Preparation, Syllabus of NTA JEE Main 2019 please visit official website of NTA (National Testing Agency)
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NEET 2019 and JEE Mains 2019 complete schedules released by NTA - National Testing Agency

NTA (National Testing Agency) has released the Exam Dates, Registration, Modes of Exam and other details for NEET 2019, JEE Main I and II 2019.
The revised schedule for NTA NEET 2019 and NTA JEE Mains were released on 21st August, 2018 by MHRD. Dates of registration, releasing admit card, exam date, modes of exam (format), results etc. of NEET 2019 and JEE Main 2019 are provided in the table below.
MHRD has decided against conducting the NEET 2019 examination twice next year. As per the earlier announcement by MHRD, NEET 2019 and JEE Main 2019 were to be conducted by NTA twice a year which has been changed now. Following a recommendation from Health Ministry, MHRD has scrapped the plan to conduct the examination in computer based format and twice a year. Now, NEET 2019 would be conducted on May 5, 2019 and the online application forms would begin from November 30, 2018. The results would be announced on June 5, 2019.
The forms for NTA JEE Main 2019 I would be released and begin from 1st September, 2019. There would be no change in the proposal of conducting NTA JEE Main 2019 in online format only. The examination would be conducted in multiple sessions from January 6, 2019 to January 20, 2019 and students would have the option of appearing on any of the days by slot booking and NTA JEE Main II 2019 would be conducted in April’19. 

NTA NEET 2019: New Rules and Changes
1. The only change for NEET 2019 is that the conducting authority has been changed. Till 2018, NEET for undergraduate medical and dental admissions i.e. NEET-UG was conducted by CBSE.
2. From 2019 onwards, the examination would be conducted by NTA. Candidates would be required to fill the online application forms on Details of how to apply for NEET NTA 2019 would be released when the forms are released on November 30.

Everything else for NEET NTA 2019 remains unchanged. For example:
1. NTA NEET 2019 examination would be a pen and paper test.
2. NTA NEET 2019 syllabus would remain the same as was the case for 2018.
3. NTA NEET 2019 eligibility is expected to remain the same.
4. As earlier, it will be conducted only once a year, which would be on May 5, 2019. 
5. NTA NEET 2019 would be conducted in all the 8 regional languages as well as in English, Hindi and Urdu.
Representative Image - NTA NEET 2019, NTA JEE Main 2019 details
For more details and registrations please visit official website of NTA (National Testing Agency)

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Online solved Biology test series for NEET-UG, MBBS and BDS Admission Tests | Human Reproduction - Reproductive Health

Free online preparation for NEET-UG, AIPMT, COMEDK, Manipal MBBS and BDS Admission Tests - solved Biology test series on Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health.
Important practice questions with answers from some of these topics covered -
Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health (Syllabus)
Human Reproduction: Male and female reproductive systems; Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; Gametogenesis-spermatogenesis & oogenesis; Menstrual Cycle; Fertilization, embryo development up to blastocyst formation, implantation; Pregnancy and Embryonic Development (placenta formation); Parturition and Lactation (Elementary idea).
Reproductive Health: Need for reproductive health and prevention of STD; Population Explosion and Birth Control; Contraception and Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP); Amniocentesis; Infertility and assisted reproductive technologies – IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (Elementary idea).

Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health

Biology MCQ Test Series Questions Answers – Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)

<<Prev  (Q.No 11 - 20)  

Question 21: Capacitation of sperms occur in –
a. Female genital tract and epididymis
b. Vas deferens and epididymis
c. Vas efferens and epididymis
d. Female genital tract and vas deferens

Question 22: Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, except –
a. Hepatitis-B
b. Genital herpes
c. HIV infections
d. All of these

Question 23: A foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo is called –
a. Chromosomal mapping
b. Assisted reproductive technology
c. Foeticides
d. Amniocentesis

Question 24: A zygote is completely divided into two by a cleavage furrow. The cleavage type is –
a. Equatorial
b. Meroblastic
c. Radial
d. Holoblastic

Question 25: The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
a. Third month
b. Fourth month
c. Fifth month
d. Sixth month

Question 26: The transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation is called –
b. IUT

Question 27: The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is –
a. Thyroxin
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Progesterone
d. Growth hormone

Question 28: Role of placenta is not to –
a. Provide nutrition to developing embryo
b. Secrete different hormones
c. Act as storage organ
d. Secretion of inhibin

Question 29: Vaults prevent conception by –
a. Phagocytosis of sperms
b. Releasing hormones
c. Killing ovum
d. Blocking the entry of sperms

Question 30: The Test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques?
a. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
b. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
c. Artificial Insemination
d. Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)

Biology Practice Questions : Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health
Solutions of Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21–30)

Answer 21: (a).   Answer 22: (d).   Answer 23: (d).   Answer 24: (d).   Answer 25: (c).   Answer 26: (d).   Answer 27: (c).   Answer 28: (d).   Answer 29: (d).   Answer 30: (b).

 Human Reproduction - Reproductive Health More Questions Answers  

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