Prepare Physics at Home | Solved Practice Questions, Test Series on Gravitation | NEET NTA | JEE Main

 

NEET NTA, JEE MAIN - Physics Preparation   
Gravitation
Physics solved MCQ test series and practice questions with answers from the chapter “Gravitation”. Prepare at home (Ghar Baithe Taiyari Kare) for NTA NEET, JEE Main, all national and state level engineering and medical entrance exams.

Gravitation (Topics / Syllabus)
Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. Laws of Gravitation - the universal law of gravitation. Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with altitude and depth. Gravitational Forces. Gravitational potential energy and Field; Escape velocity, orbital velocity of a satellite. Geostationary satellites. Motion of planets and satellites in circular orbits.

Physics Practice Questions: Gravitation
India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21 - 30)

Question 21: If the change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of earth is the same as at a depth d below it (both h and d are much smaller than the radius of the earth), then:
a. d = h    b. d = 2h    c. d = h/2    d. d = h2

Question 22: The weight of a body will appear to be zero when
a. It is kept at the centre of the earth
b. It is freely falling
c. It is inside the satellites orbiting around the earth
d. All of these

Question 23: A satellite launching station should be
a. Near the equator region
b. Near the polar region
c. On the polar axis
d. On any place

Question 24: For the moon to cease to remain the earth’s satellite, its orbital velocity has to increase by a factor –
a. 2    b. √2    c. 1/√2    d. √3

Question 25: What will be the formula of mass of the earth in terms of g, R and G?

Question 26: Gravitational force between a point mass m and M separated by a distance is F. Now, if a point mass 2m is placed next to m in contact with it, the force on M due to m and the total force on M are:
a. 2F, F    b. F, 2F    c. F, 3F    d. F, F

Question 27: The distances of Neptune and Saturn from the sun are nearly 1013 and 1012 meters respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their periodic times will be in the ratio –
a. √10    b. 100    c. 10√10    d. 1/√10

Question 28: Which of the following graphs shows the variation of acceleration due to gravity g with depth h from the surface of the earth?
(1) (a)    (2) (b)    (3) (c)    (4) (d)

Question 29: A satellite is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit with a uniform speed. If the gravitational force suddenly disappears, then the satellite will
a. Continue to move in the same orbit with that speed
b. Move tangentially to the orbit with that speed
c. Move away from the earth normally to the orbit
d. Fall down on the earth

Question 30: A satellite can be in a geostationary orbit around a planet at a distance r from the centre of the planet. If the angular velocity of the planet about its axis doubles, a satellite can now be in a geostationary orbit around the planet if its distance from the centre of the planet is –

 Gravitation More Questions Answers  

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EduNews: JEE Main 2019 by NTA - Online Registration, Eligibility, Exam Date, Pattern, Admit card, Results and Preparation

 

What are JEE Main and JEE Advanced
NTA JEE Main 2019 - representative image
JEE or Joint Entrance Examination is a national level engineering entrance exam for getting admissions into engineering colleges across India. Till 2011, All India Engineering Entrance Examination (AIEEE) used to be conducted by CBSE every year. In the year 2012, CBSE announced the replacement of IIT JEE and AIEEE with Joint Entrance Examination (JEE). The AIEEE was replaced by JEE Main to facilitate admissions in 31 NITs, 20 IIITs and 18 other CFTIs (Centrally Funded Technical Institutes) while IIT JEE was replaced by JEE Advanced to facilitate admissions in the 23 IITs (Indian Institute of Technology) and ISM Dhanbad. From 2019 instead of CBSE, JEE Main will be conducted twice a year in the month of January and April respectively by National Testing Agency (NTA). If a candidate achieves a certain cut-off score which is decided every year, in JEE Main then he or she qualifies for JEE Advanced. Qualification in JEE Main is not the only criteria for selection as the candidate should have secured at least 75 per cent marks in the 12th class examination, or be in the top 20 percentile in the 12th class examination conducted by the respective Boards. For SC/ST candidates the qualifying marks would be 65 per cent in the 12th class examination.
National Test Agency (NTA) has released the notification for Joint Entrance Examination, JEE Main 2019. Students interested in applying for admissions to undergraduate B.Tech, BE and B.Arch courses are required to fill the JEE Main 2019 online application.
Eligibility for NTA JEE Main 2019
For BE/B.Tech: The student must have passed 10+2 examination with Physics and Mathematics as compulsory subjects along with Chemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/ Technical Vocational subject.
For B.Arch/B.Planning: The student must have passed 10+2 with Mathematics as one of the subjects.
Age Criteria: General category candidates – born on or after 1st of October 1994. SC, ST, and PwD category candidates – born on or after 1st of October 1989.
To know more about Online Registration, Eligibility, Exam Date, Pattern, Admit card, Results and Preparation, Syllabus of NTA JEE Main 2019 please visit official website of NTA (National Testing Agency) https://www.nta.ac.in
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NEET 2019 and JEE Mains 2019 complete schedules released by NTA - National Testing Agency

 
NTA (National Testing Agency) has released the Exam Dates, Registration, Modes of Exam and other details for NEET 2019, JEE Main I and II 2019.
The revised schedule for NTA NEET 2019 and NTA JEE Mains were released on 21st August, 2018 by MHRD. Dates of registration, releasing admit card, exam date, modes of exam (format), results etc. of NEET 2019 and JEE Main 2019 are provided in the table below.
MHRD has decided against conducting the NEET 2019 examination twice next year. As per the earlier announcement by MHRD, NEET 2019 and JEE Main 2019 were to be conducted by NTA twice a year which has been changed now. Following a recommendation from Health Ministry, MHRD has scrapped the plan to conduct the examination in computer based format and twice a year. Now, NEET 2019 would be conducted on May 5, 2019 and the online application forms would begin from November 30, 2018. The results would be announced on June 5, 2019.
The forms for NTA JEE Main 2019 I would be released and begin from 1st September, 2019. There would be no change in the proposal of conducting NTA JEE Main 2019 in online format only. The examination would be conducted in multiple sessions from January 6, 2019 to January 20, 2019 and students would have the option of appearing on any of the days by slot booking and NTA JEE Main II 2019 would be conducted in April’19. 

NTA NEET 2019: New Rules and Changes
1. The only change for NEET 2019 is that the conducting authority has been changed. Till 2018, NEET for undergraduate medical and dental admissions i.e. NEET-UG was conducted by CBSE.
2. From 2019 onwards, the examination would be conducted by NTA. Candidates would be required to fill the online application forms on nta.ac.in. Details of how to apply for NEET NTA 2019 would be released when the forms are released on November 30.

Everything else for NEET NTA 2019 remains unchanged. For example:
1. NTA NEET 2019 examination would be a pen and paper test.
2. NTA NEET 2019 syllabus would remain the same as was the case for 2018.
3. NTA NEET 2019 eligibility is expected to remain the same.
4. As earlier, it will be conducted only once a year, which would be on May 5, 2019. 
5. NTA NEET 2019 would be conducted in all the 8 regional languages as well as in English, Hindi and Urdu.
Representative Image - NTA NEET 2019, NTA JEE Main 2019 details
For more details and registrations please visit official website of NTA (National Testing Agency) https://www.nta.ac.in

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Online solved Biology test series for NEET-UG, MBBS and BDS Admission Tests | Human Reproduction - Reproductive Health

Free online preparation for NEET-UG, AIPMT, COMEDK, Manipal MBBS and BDS Admission Tests - solved Biology test series on Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health.
Important practice questions with answers from some of these topics covered -
Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health (Syllabus)
Human Reproduction: Male and female reproductive systems; Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; Gametogenesis-spermatogenesis & oogenesis; Menstrual Cycle; Fertilization, embryo development up to blastocyst formation, implantation; Pregnancy and Embryonic Development (placenta formation); Parturition and Lactation (Elementary idea).
Reproductive Health: Need for reproductive health and prevention of STD; Population Explosion and Birth Control; Contraception and Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP); Amniocentesis; Infertility and assisted reproductive technologies – IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (Elementary idea).

Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health

Biology MCQ Test Series Questions Answers – Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)

<<Prev  (Q.No 11 - 20)  

Question 21: Capacitation of sperms occur in –
a. Female genital tract and epididymis
b. Vas deferens and epididymis
c. Vas efferens and epididymis
d. Female genital tract and vas deferens

Question 22: Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, except –
a. Hepatitis-B
b. Genital herpes
c. HIV infections
d. All of these

Question 23: A foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo is called –
a. Chromosomal mapping
b. Assisted reproductive technology
c. Foeticides
d. Amniocentesis

Question 24: A zygote is completely divided into two by a cleavage furrow. The cleavage type is –
a. Equatorial
b. Meroblastic
c. Radial
d. Holoblastic

Question 25: The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
a. Third month
b. Fourth month
c. Fifth month
d. Sixth month

Question 26: The transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation is called –
a. ICSI
b. IUT
c. ZIFT
d. GIFT

Question 27: The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is –
a. Thyroxin
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Progesterone
d. Growth hormone

Question 28: Role of placenta is not to –
a. Provide nutrition to developing embryo
b. Secrete different hormones
c. Act as storage organ
d. Secretion of inhibin

Question 29: Vaults prevent conception by –
a. Phagocytosis of sperms
b. Releasing hormones
c. Killing ovum
d. Blocking the entry of sperms

Question 30: The Test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques?
a. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
b. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
c. Artificial Insemination
d. Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)

Biology Practice Questions : Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health
Solutions of Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21–30)

Answer 21: (a).   Answer 22: (d).   Answer 23: (d).   Answer 24: (d).   Answer 25: (c).   Answer 26: (d).   Answer 27: (c).   Answer 28: (d).   Answer 29: (d).   Answer 30: (b).



 Human Reproduction - Reproductive Health More Questions Answers  

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Circular and Rotational Motions - MCQ Test Series solved questions for NEET-UG, IIT JEE, COMEDK, MBBS and BDS admission tests, Engineering Entrance Exams

Physics: Circular Motion, Rotational Motion

Physics MCQ Test Series solved questions for NEET-ug, IIT JEE, COMEDK, MBBS and BDS admission tests, Engineering Entrance Exams and other such competitive exams.
Syllabus for NEET and IIT JEE:
Kinematics of Circular Motion; Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion; Centripetal Force; Examples: vehicle on level circular road, vehicle on baked track; Angular Velocity and is relation with Linear Velocity; Torque or Moment of Force and Angular Momentum; Laws of Conservation of Angular Momentum; Theorems of perpendicular axes and parallel axes; Kinematics of Rotational Motion about a fixed axis; Rolling Motion; General relation among Position-Velocity-Acceleration for Motion in a plane and Uniform Circular Motion; Centrifugal Force; Motion in a vertical circle; Rotational Motion of a rigid body; Moment of Inertia; Angular Impulse.

Solved MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)
Question 21: The angular speed of a fly wheel making 120 rev/min is:
a. 2π rad/s
b. 4π2 rad/s
c. π rad/s
d. 4π rad/s

Question 22: A child is swinging a swing, minimum and maximum heights of swing from earth’s surface are 0.75 m and 2 m respectively. The maximum velocity of this swing is –
a. 5 m/s
b. 10 m/s
c. 15 m/s
d. 20 m/s

Question 23: An aeroplane is flying with a uniform speed of 100 m/s along a circular path of radius 100 m. The angular speed of the aeroplane will be:
a. 1 rad/s
b. 2 rad/s
c. 3 rad/s
d. 4 rad/s

Question 24: A block of mass m slides down along the surface of the bowl from the rim to the bottom as shown in fig. The velocity of the block at the bottom will be –
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Question 25: When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle:
a. Its velocity remains constant
b. No force acts on it
c. No work is done on it
d. No acceleration is produced on it

Question 26: A 1 kg ball is rotated in a vertical circle by using a string of length 0.1 m. If the tension in the string at the lowest point is 29.4 N, its angular velocity at that position is –
a. 7 rads-1
b. 14 rads-1
c. 3.5 rads-1
d. 25.6 rads-1

Question 27: A cyclist moves in a circular track of radius 100 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2. Then the maximum speed with which the cyclist take a turn without leaning inwards is:
a. 14.0 m/s
b. 140 m/s
c. 1.4 m/s
d. 9.8 m/s

Question 28: If all objects on the equator of earth feel weightless then the duration of the day will nearly become –
a. 6.2 hr
b. 4.4 hr
c. 2.2 hr
d. 1.41 hr

Question 29: Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same time t. The ratio of the angular speeds of the first to the second car is:
a. 1: 1
b. m1: m2
c. r1: r2
d. m1m2: r1r2

Question 30: A 2 kg stone is swung in a vertical circle by attaching it at the end of a string of length 2m. If the string can withstand a tension 140.6 N, the maximum speed with which the stone can be rotated is –
a. 22 ms-1
b. 44 ms-1
c. 33 ms-1
 Circular and Rotational Motions More Questions Answers  

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