Solved Chemistry MCQ Test Series on Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure for NEET, IIT, JEE main

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Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Syllabus :
Chemical combination; Kossel-Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding; Lattice Energy; Covalent Bond; Octet Rule; Ionic and electrovalent Bond; Electrovalency; Covalency; Writing formula of an ionic compound; Coordinate Bond; Metallic Bond; Bond parameters - bond length, bond angle, bond enthalpy, bond order, resonance structures, polarity of bonds; The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory; Valence Bond Theory; Geometry of molecules; Hybridisation; Molecular Orbital Theory; Bonding in some Homonuclear Diatomic Molecules; Hydrogen Bonding
Chemistry Solution: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
MCQ Test Series – Set 4 (Q No.31-40)

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Question 31: Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has the central atom with sp2 hybridisation is:
a. H2CO3
b. SiF4
c. BF3
d. HClO2

Question 32: The bond order –
a. Can have negative value
b. Is any number other than zero
c. Is any integer
d. Can have any value including zero

Question 33: Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron(s)?
a. N2
b. F2
c. O2-
d. O22-

Question 34: Which compound has planar structure?
a. XeF4
b. XeOF
c. XeO2F2
d. XeO4

Question 35: Molecular orbital theory is preferred over valence bond theory as it can explain:
a. Bond strength
b. Geometry of molecule
c. The magnetic nature of the molecule
d. None of the above

Question 36: Acetylene consists of –
a. Both sigma and pi bonds
b. Sigma bond only
c. Pi bond only
d. None of these

Question 37: Which among the following has the highest volatility?
a. H2O
b. H2S
c. H2Se
d. H2Te

Question 38: Which one of the following is not the resonating structure of CO2:
a. O ≡ C = O
b. O = C = O
c. O – C ≡ O+
d. +O ≡ C – O-

Question 39: Born Haber cycle is based on:
a. Law of conservation of mass
b. Law of conservation of energy
c. Fajan’s law
d. Charle’s law

Question 40: Which of the following models best describes the bonding within a layer of the graphite structure?
a. Metallic bonding
b. Ionic bonding
c. Non-metallic covalent bonding
d. Van der Waals forces
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MCQ Test Series: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Solutions of Set 4 (Q. No.31 – 40)
India Study Solution - Chemistry Solution and Guide




Answer 32: (d). Answer 33: (c). Answer 34: (a). Answer 35: (c). Answer 36: (a). Answer 37: (b). Answer 38: (a). Answer 39: (b). Answer 40: (c).

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Diversity in The Living World, Biological Classification - NEET questions answers

Fully solved sample questions exclusively helpful for preparing NEET and all Medical and Dental Entrance Exams, MBBS Admission Tests like COMEDK, EAMCET and similar competitive examinations.       
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Diversity in The Living World - Biological Classification

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What is Living? Taxonomic Categories. Taxonomical Aids. Biodiversity; Three domains of life; Concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; Binomial nomenclature; Tools for study of Taxonomy – Museums, Zoos, Herbaria, Botanical gardens.
Need for classification; Taxonomy & Systematics and Binomial system of nomenclature. Kingdom Systems of Classification.  Classification from two Kingdoms to five Kingdom Systems. Major groups of each Kingdom along with their silent features (Monera, including Archaebacteria, Cyanobacteria and Bacteria, Protista - Dinoflagilates and Diatoms, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia): Viruses, Lichens. Kingdom: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia. Viruses. Viroids.
Solutions of Previous questions -
The Living World and Biological Classification

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – Set 4 (Q. No. 31 - 40)

Question 31: All algae possess
a. Chl a, and b
b. Chl a, carotenes and phycobilins
c. Chl b, and carotenes
d. Chl a, and carotenoids

Question 32: Plants belonging to different classes, with a few similar characters are assigned to a category called
a. Phylum    b. Order    c. Division    d. Genus

Question 33: Prokaryotes possess
a. Nucleus    b. Nucleoid    c. Nucleolus    d. None of the above

Question 34: Kingdom Monera includes
a. Bacteria    b. Fungi    c. Archaebacteria    d. All

Question 35: No. of kingdom formed by Whittaker on the basis of mode of nutrition-
a. 2    b. 3    c. 4    d. 5

Question 36: Plant classification proposed by Carlous Linnaeus was artificial because it was based on
a. Only a few morphological characters
b. Anatomical characters which are adaptive in nature
c. Physiological traits along with morphological characters
d. Evolutionary tendencies which are diverse

Question 37: Systema Naturae was written by
a. Linnaeus    b. Aristotle    c. Darwin    d. de Candolle




Question 38: Viruses are considered as
a. Advanced than bacteria
b. Advanced than algae
c. Advanced than protozoa
d. Most primitive

Question 39: Which statement is false –?
a. In amoeba contractile vacuole is responsible for osmoregulation
b. During the formation of pseudopodia plasma gel change into plasma sol
c. Longitudinal ridges are found in endoplasm in amoeba
d. Change in viscosity theory is given by Odem

(1) a and b    (2) b and c    (3) c and d   (4) a and d 

Question 40: Biodiversity is referred as
a. Number and type of organism present on earth
b. Number of only animal species
c. Number of only plant species
d. Number of underwater species

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NEET Practice Questions: The Living World and Biological Classification

Solved Biology MCQ Test Series – Set 4 (Q. No. 31 – 40)

Answer 31: (d).  Answer 32: (c).   Answer 33: (b).   Answer 34: (d).   Answer 35: (b). 
Answer 36: (a).   Answer 37: (a).   Answer 38: (d).  Answer 39: (3).   Answer 40: (a).
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Plant Kingdom | Classification of Plants into Groups with Features | Plant Life Cycles | Questions for NEET, MBBS Entrance

Fully solved practice questions for NTA NEET, Medical Entrance Exams, MBBS Admission Tests and other competitive exams.
Diversity in The Living World
Topics (Syllabus): Plant Kingdom | Classification of Plants | Plant Life Cycles and Alternation of Generations 
Salient features, treatment of Plant Kingdom. Classification of plants into major groups - Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms (three to five salient and distinguishing features and at least two examples of each category). Angiosperms - classification up to class, characteristic features and examples). Ulothrix and Spirogyra. Albugo. Mucor, Rhizopus and Yeast. Ricca and Funaria. Pteridium and Selaginella. Cycas and Pinus. Plant Life Cycles and Alternation of Generations. 

Biology Objective Questions : Practice Questions Answers

India Study Solution Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No.21 - 30)


Question 21: Sulphur shower is caused by
a. Release of pollens from Pinus male cones in conifer forest
b. Acid rains
c. Sulphur deposition
d. None of the above

Question 22: Rhizopore of Selaginella is –
a. Root
b. Stem
c. New organ or organ sui-generis
d. None of these

Question 23: Floridian starch is found in –
a. Chlorophyceae
b. Rhodophyceae
c. Cyanophyceae
d. Chrysophyceae

Question 24: Calyptra is formed from
a. Spore
b. Oospore
c. Venter
d. Archaegonium

Question 25: Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be
a. Smaller and to have smaller sex organs
b. Smaller but to have larger sex organs
c. Larger but to have smaller sex organs
d. Larger and to have larger sex organs

Question 26: In Pinus, male cone bears a large number of
a. Microsporophylls
b. Ligules
c. Megasporophylls
d. Anthers

Question 27: In bryophytes
a. Both generations are independent
b. Gametophytes are dependent upon sporophytes
c. Sporophytes are always autotrophic
d. Sporophytes are dependent upon gametophytes

Question 28: Brown hair found at the base of Pteris leaves are
a. Modified stipules
b. Modified leaflets
c. Ramenta
d. Spines

Question 29: The smallest plant group gymnosperm has how many species?
a. 640    b. 300    c. 1000    d. 900

Question 30: In which gymnosperm, archegonia are absent
a. Gnetum
b. Welwischia
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

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Diversity in the Living World - Plant Kingdom | Plants Classification Features
Solutions of ISS Test Series – Set 3 (Q.No.21 – 30)

Answer 21: (a).   Answer 22: (c).   Answer 23: (b).   Answer 24: (c).   Answer 25: (a).   Answer 26: (a).   Answer 27: (d).   Answer 28: (b).   Answer 29: (d).   Answer 30: (c).


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EduNews: Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Board announced revised date for WBJEE-2019

 
Updated: 23-12-2018
West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam (WBJEE 2019) for admission to engineering and pharmacy colleges will be held on May 26, 2019.

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"Paper-I (math) will be held in the first half, from 11am to 1pm. Paper-II (physics & chemistry) will be held in the second half, from 2pm to 4pm," board chairman Malayendu Saha said. The results of WBJEE - 2019 are likely to be published on July 2.
WBJEE 2019 dates have been changed twice.

Saha had said the board was likely to hold the test on April 21, 2019, while releasing the results of this year's exam in May.
On December 12, the exam date was fixed on May 19, assuming the Lok Sabha polls and the results would be declared by then.
On Monday, the board said the dates would be revised because of the JEE (Advanced) on May 19.
This year, the exam was held on April 22 and the results were announced on May 23.
The board has announced that applications can be filed and fees paid online from December 26.
"The classes start on August 1. We will take steps to ensure the online counselling is held in a way that the session starts on time," board chairman Saha said.
The board holds several rounds of online counselling and students are admitted after each round.
This year, the online counselling began in the first week of June.
The board this year had held mock counselling across 33 centres to explain the concept of online counselling.
Now after this unusual delay in taking exam, some doubt is quite apparent if the WBJEE board will hold such mock counselling next year for WBJEE 2020.

Schedule for WBJEE - 2019

Date of Exam: 26th May 2019 (Sunday)
On-Line Registration: 26th Dec 2018 to 22nd Jan2019 (5 p.m.)
Registration through Website: www.wbjeeb.nic.in
For information bulletin of WBJEE-2019 and other details please visit the board website: www.wbjeeb.in / www.wbjeeb.nic.in

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EduNews: WBJEE 2019 date to change

 

West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination (WBJEE) board has decided to revise the examination date for WBJEE-2019. The JEE board will announce the new date soon. 
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The West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam board had initially announced to hold the entrance test (WBJEE 2019) for admission to engineering colleges and pharmacy institutes on 21st April 2019 next year. But an announcement uploaded on the board's website on December 12 said that the test would be held on 19th May 2019 instead.
The latest notice on the website declares that "the date of WBJEE-2019 examination will be reconsidered and the new date will be announced shortly". The JEE Advanced 2019 examination is scheduled for 19th May 2019.
"The new dates will be announced soon," JEE board chairman Malayendu Saha said on Monday.
Saha had, while announcing the results of the WBJEE 2018 in May, said WBJEE 2019 exam was likely be held on April 21 in 2019.
"We have tentatively fixed April 21, 2019, which is a Sunday," Saha had said.
Now the exam has been deferred to May 19, assuming that the general election results would be out by then as the five-year term of the Lok Sabha ends on May 19, an official said.
This year, the exam was held on April 22 and the results were announced on May 23.
Online application and payment of fees for WBJEE 2019 will begin on December 26. "The forms can be submitted online till 5pm on January 22, 2019. Corrections can be made online and a revised confirmation page downloaded from January 23 to January 25," JEE board chairman Saha said.
The downloadable admit cards were to be published on May 7, 2019.
 EduNews Related Articles


Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties | India Study Solution

Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Solved Questions Bank and MCQ Test Series – Set 4 (Q. No 31-40)

Fully solved practice questions (MCQ Test Series) for on Classification of Elements, Periodic Table and Periodicity in Properties for IIT JEE, NEET, Class 12 Board Exams and other competitions.

Chemistry Test Series: Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

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India Study Solution Test Series – Set 4 (Q. No. 31-40)

Question 31: In which of the following compound Mn shows minimum radius?
a. MnO2    b. KMnO4    c. MnO   d. None of these

Question 32: The values of IE(I), IE(II), IE(III), and IE(IV), of an atom are respectively 7.5 eV, 25.6 eV, 48.6 eV and 170.6 eV. The electronic configuration of the atom will be:
a. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1          b. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
c. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p3    d. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

Question 33: The total number of elements known are:
a. 92    b. 117    c. 100    d. 118

Question 34: With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?
a. 1s2, 2s2, 2p3   b.1s2, 2s2, 2p5, 3s1
c. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6     d. 1s2, 2s2, 2p5

Question 35: The longest and shortest periods are
a. 1 & 6    b. 2 & 6    c. 6 & 1    d. 1 & 7

Question 36: Pick the incorrect statement about the factors affecting ionization energy
a. Half-filled or full-filled atomic orbitals have high ionization energy
b. More is the shielding of valence electrons more is the ionization energy
c. Larger is the atomic radii lower is ionization energy
d. Ionization enthalpy  effective nuclear charge

Question 37: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
a. Generally the radius trend and the ionization energy trend across a period are opposites
b. Metallic and covalent radii of potassium are 2.3 Å and 2.03 Å respectively
c. Amongst Li-, Be-, B- and C-, Li- is least stable ion
d. Atomic and ionic radii of Niobium and Tantalum are almost same

Question 38: Which of the following has largest radius?
a. O2-   b. Mg2+   c. Na+   d. F-

Question 39: Among the following Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is
a. Mg < Ca < Cl < P   b. Cl < P < Mg < Ca
c. P < Cl < Ca < Mg   d. Ca < Mg < P < Cl

Question 40: The starting element of fifth period is
a. K   b. Rb   c. Kr   d. Xe

Periodic Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Hint & Solutions of Test Series Questions Set 4 (Q. No. 31 - 40)

Answer 31: (b) (Hint: IAs oxidation state of central metal ion increases, the electron to proton ratio decreases and therefore, size of ion decreases. In KMnO4, Mn is in + 7 O.S. So, due to maximum +ve charge radius will be lowest)
Answer 32: (b) Answer 33: (b) Answer 34: (b) Answer 35: (c) Answer 36: (b)
Answer 37: (c)
[Hint: a. Across the period, size decreases as electrons are added in the same shell and nuclear charge increases by one unit for addition of each successive element. In contrary, the ionization energy increases as size of atom decreases and nuclear charge increases. 
b. rmetallic > rcovalent (covalent bond formation involves the overlapping of orbitals). 
c. 3Li- - 1s2 2s2 completely filled stable configuration, so more stable. 4Be- - 1s2 2s2 2p1. 5B- - 1s2 2s2 2p2. 6C- - 1s2 2s2 2p3 half-filled stable configuration, so more stable.
d. Due to lanthanide contraction]
Answer 38: (a)  Answer 39: (b)  Answer 40: (b)

 Classification of Elements, Periodic Table - Practice Questions Bank | Test Series  

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