JEE Main - 2018 Admission Notification by CBSE

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

Admission Notice Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) - 2018

CBSE has issued a notice that in pursuance of MHRD, Govt of India, the 6th Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) 2018 will be conducted on 8-April-18 (Sunday) by the JEE  Apex Board for admission to undergraduate engineering programmes in NITS, IITs and other centrally funded technical institutions etc.

Read: CBSE announced tentative dates for IITJEE Mainand JEE Advanced 2018

The states of Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Uttarakhand, and Nagaland & Odisha have joined JEE (Main) system. Therefore, the candidates seeking admission to the institutions in these states, which were earlier admitting based on their state level examinations, are also advised to fill in JEE (Main) - 2018 application form online.

The JEE (Main) will also be an eligibility test for JEE (Advanced ),  which the candidate has to take if he/she is aspiring for admission to the undergraduate programmes offered by the IITs& ISM. The candidates are advised to see the JEE (Advanced) website www.jeeadv.ac.in for information related to JEE (Advanced).

The detailed information bulletin containing details of examination, syllabus, eligibility criteria to appear and more wool be available on JEE (Main) website www.jeemain.nic.in on 20.11.2017. The aspiring candidates are requested to download the information bulletin from above mentioned website only and read the same carefully before applying.  The eligibility criteria for JEE (Main) and JEE (Advanced) are different. Candidates need to read the information bulletin carefully and ensure their eligibility as per the criteria laid down for JEE (Main) and JEE (Advanced).

The process of Aadhaar authentication before submission of online form will be notified by CBSE separately.

How to Apply, Deadline

The aspiring candidates have to apply online only through JEE (Main) website www.jeemain.nic.in.

The online application starts: 1-Dec-2017.

Last date for application: 1-Jan-2018.

Last date for payment of fees: 2-Jan-2018.

Further Contact

Executive Director (JAB)

H-149, Sector-63

Noida - 201309

Tel: 7042399520, 7042399521, 7042399526

Web: www.jeemain.nic.in

E-mail: jeemain@nic.in 

Biology Objective Questions Test Series - Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants

Free online solved Biology objective questions (MCQ) test series and practice questions on Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants for various competitive examinations, NEET, AIPMT, MCAT, NEST, admission tests.

Diversity in The Living World - Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants

Biology MCQ : Biology Objective Questions : Practice Test Series with Solutions

India Study Solution Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11 - 20)

Question 11: Horse tails are a group of

a. Algae    b. Gymnosperms    c. Pteridophytes   
d. Bryophytes

Question 12: In which fact Albugo is similar to animals

a. In being parasitic

b. In movement

c. In reserve food

d. In reproduction

Question 13: After germination the megaspore give rise to

a. Female gametophyte

b. Antheridia

c. Male gametophyte

d. Antherozoid

Question 14: What is the common name of Sphagnum?

a. Peat moss

b. Trough moss

c. Bog moss

d. All the above

Question 15: The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by –

a. Albugo candida

b. Puccinia graminis tritici

c. Ustilago nuda

d. Cleviceps purpurea

Question 16: Canada balsam is obtained from

a. Pinus excels

b. Abies balsemia

c. Cedrus deodara

d. Junipers

Question 17: Bread mould is the common name of

a. Batrachospermum

b. Rhizopus

c. Agaricus

d. Bacillus

Question 18: Cytotaxonomy is connected with

a. Chemical composition of cytoplasm

b. Cell organelles

c. Cytochromes

d. Shape and size of cells

Question 19: What is necessary for seed formation?

a. Heterospory

b. Growth of the megaspore within sporangium

c. Both of above

d. Growth of microspore within the sporangium

Question 20: Viruses posses

a. Ribosomes to synthesise protein

b. Organelles for its vital mechanisms

c. Either DNA or RNA

d. None of these

India Study Solution

Biology: Diversity in the Living World - Plant Kingdom, Classification of Plants

Solutions of India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 2 (Q.No.11 – 20)

http://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 11: (c).   Answer 12: (c).   Answer 13: (a).   Answer 14: (d).   Answer 15: (b).    Answer 16: (b).   Answer 17: (b).   Answer 18: (b).   Answer 19: (c).   Answer 20: (c).

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Chemistryonline solved objective test series (MCQ) with hints helpful for preparing IITJEE, NEET, Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, Joint Entrance Exams, NEST and other competitions.

Chemistry Test Series (MCQ Practice Questions)

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Syllabus:

Chemical combination; Kossel-Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding; Lattice Energy; Covalent Bond; Octet Rule; Ionic and electrovalent Bond; Electrovalency; Covalency; Writing formula of an ionic compound; Coordinate Bond; Metallic Bond; Bond parameters - bond length, bond angle, bond enthalpy, bond order, resonance structures, polarity of bonds; The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory; Valence Bond Theory; Geometry of molecules; Hybridisation; Molecular Orbital Theory; Bonding in some Homonuclear Diatomic Molecules; Hydrogen Bonding

Chemistry Test Series: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

MCQ Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11-20)

Question 11: The attraction that non-polar molecules have for each other is primarily caused by –

a. Van der Waal’s forces

b. Difference in electronegativities

c. Hydrogen bonding

d. High ionisation energy

Question 12: The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is:

a. One sigma, one pi

b. Two sigma, one pi

c. Two sigma, two pi

d. One sigma, two pi

Question 13: Which of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?

a. He₂⁺

b. H₂

c. H₂⁺

d. H₂^-

Question 14: Which of the following molecules has the highest bond order?

a. O₂^-

b. O₂

c. O₂⁺

d. O₂^2-

Question 15: Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of –

a. Free electrons

b. Free ions

c. Free molecules

d. Free atoms

Question 16: Which of the following have low lattice energy?

a. Cs-F

b. Cs-Cl

c. Cs-Br

d. Cs-I

Question 17: Which one is electron deficient compound?

a. ICl

b. BCl₃

c. NH₃

d. PCl₃

Question 18: Which of the following is least ionic?

a. BeI₂

b. BeCl₂

c. BeBr₂

d. BeF₂

Question 19: The shape of sulphate ion is –

a. Tetrahedral

b. Square planar

c. Trigonal

d. Trigonal planar

Question 20: Which of the following has pπ – dπ bonding?

a. NO₃^-

b. SO₃^2-

c. BO₃^3-

d. CO₃^2-

^­View Hints / Answers

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Chemistry Objective Test Questions with Solutions: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Chemistry online fully solved (test series) practice questions (MCQ) helpful for preparing IITJEE, NEET, Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, Joint Entrance Exams, NEST and other competitions.

India Study Solution Chemistry Test Series (MCQ Practice Questions)

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Syllabus

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Chemistry Test Series: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

MCQ Test Series – Set 1 (Q. No. 1-10)

Question 1: Tendency of I^-, Br^-, Cl^- and F^- to be oxidised is in order:

a. I^- > Br^- > Cl^- > F^-

b. I^- < Br^- < Cl^- < F^-

c. I^- < Cl^- > F^- > Br^-

d. I^- = Br^- > Cl^- = F^-

Question 2: Some statements about valence bond theory are given below –

a. The strength of bond depends upon extent of overlapping

b. The theory explains the directional nature of covalent bond

c. According to this theory oxygen molecule is paramagnetic in nature

(1) All are correct   (2) Only a and c   (3) Only a and b are correct   (4) All are wrong

Question 3: Which has maximum covalent character?

a. NaCl

b. SiCl₄

c. AlCl₃

d. MgCl₂

Question 4: The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is –

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 1

Question 5: The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is –

a. sp < sp² < sp³

b. sp > sp² < sp³

c. sp > sp² > sp³

d. sp < sp² > sp³

Question 6: The electronegativity of O, F, N, Cl and H are 3.5, 4.0, 3.2, 3.0 and 2.1 respectively. The strongest bond will be:

a. F-O

b. O-Cl

c. N-H

d. O-H

Question 7: When two atoms of chlorine combine to form one molecule of chlorine gas, the energy of the molecule is –

a. Greater than that of separate atoms

b. Equal to that of separate atoms

c. Lower than that of separate atoms

d. None of these

Question 8: Which of the following species is not correctly matched with its geometry according to the VSEPR theory?

a. BrF₆⁺ → octahedral

b. SnCl₅^- → trigonal bipyramidal

c. ClF₂^- → linear

d. IF₄⁺ → T-shape

Question 9: Variable valency is shown by:

a. s-block elements

b. d-block elements

c. p- and d-block elements

d. all elements

Question 10: Covalent compounds are generally soluble in –

a. Polar solvents

b. Non-polar solvents

c. Concentrated acids

d. All solvents

View / Download Answers (Hints) [.pdf]

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NEET 2018 questions in regional languages

25-Oct-2017

The center communicated its decision to representatives of all the states in a video conference on 16th Oct'17 that from 2018 onwards UG medical (MBBS) aspirants will have the option to get question papers of NEET in regional languages too along with in English.

However, there seems to be still some dilemma of acceptance by some of the states in this regard.

Bengal government's action for NEET 2018

Bengal has dropped the plan to hold a separate medical entrance examination after the center said the common national entrance exam's regional language papers next year would be the translation of English version.

The national entrance-cum-eligibility test (NEET) this year sparked allegations that the NEET Question paper in English was easier than some of the regional language ones, including Bengali.

However according to Bengal education minister, the state is exploring all possibilities to keep medical aspirants of Bengal out of the ambit of common test for another year. He said the main intention behind this is to give the center at least a year to see whether they can develop a mechanism so that the students particularly from rural areas studying mostly in state board don't face problems which had happened in Tamil Nadu in NEET 2017.

The director of Bengal medical education Debasish Bhattacharya said he had written to CBSE board, which conducts NEET, on May 8 flagging the disadvantages students from Bengal had faced, the Union HRD minister Prakash Javadekar, had said in July that NEET question papers in regional languages would be a translation of the NEET Question paper in English.

According to the Bengal higher education departmental sources, the four students from the state who figured among the top 50inNEET 2017 were all from CBSE board.

Tamil Nadu government's action for NEET 2018

This would be important to mention here according to our sources, till now it is not clear what Tamil Nadu government would do following canter’s video conference of 16th Oct'17. Along with Bengal and few other states a representative of TN had taken part in that video conference.

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