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Biology Objective Questions Test Series with Solutions: Reproduction in Organisms

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India Study Solution Biology online test series with fully solved practice objective questions (MCQ) helpful to prepare for NEET and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, MCAT, NEST and many other competitions.      
Solved objective questions MCQ from some of these topics covered -
Reproduction in Organisms (Syllabus)
Reproduction, a characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species; Modes of reproduction – Asexual and sexual; Asexual reproduction; Modes-Binary fission, sporulation, budding, gemmule, fragmentation; vegetative propagation in plants.

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Biology: Reproduction in Organisms

Multiple Choice Questions – Set 1 (Q. No. 1-10)

Question 1: Pollination by ants is –
a. Melacophily
b. Myrmecophily
c. Entomophily
d. Ornithophily

Question 2: The type of reproduction which will occur in an organism depend upon –
a. Morphology of the organism
b. Habitat and morphology of the organism
c. Morphology and physiology of the organism
d. The organism’s habitat, internal physiology and genetic makeup

Question 3: In vegetative propagation by tubers, which of following remains constant through generations –
a. Morphology
b. Vigour only
c. Vigour and morphology only
d. Morphology, vigour and disease resistance

Question 4: Study of pollen grains is –
a. Palaeobotany
b. Palaeontology
c. Palynology
d. Pomology

Question 5: Product of sexual reproduction generally generates –
a. Prolonged dormancy
b. New genetic combination leading to variation
c. Large biomass
d. Longer viability of seeds

Question 6: Diploid chromosome number in meiocytes of fruit fly is –
a. 8
b. 380
c. 12
d. 20

Question 7: The period from birth to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in animal’s life before they can reproduce sexually is called –
a. Vegetative phase
b. Somatic phase
c. Juvenile phase
d. Senescence phase

Question 8: If number of chromosomes in an egg cell is 8, then the number of chromosomes in endosperm is –
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24

Question 9: When offspring is produced by a single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation, then it is called –
a. Unisexual reproduction
b. Bisexual reproduction
c. Hermaphrodite sexual reproduction
d. Asexual reproduction

Question 10: The offspring produced through which of the following process are not exactly similar to their parents?
a. Parthenogenesis
b. Asexual reproduction
c. Sexual reproduction
d. Dizygotic twins

India Study Solution - Biology Objective Questions with Solutions
biology Test Series: reproduction in organisms
Solutions of Biology Test Series Questions – Set 1 (Q. No. 1 – 10)

Answer 1: (c).   Answer 2: (d).   Answer 3: (d).   Answer 4: (c).   Answer 5: (b).   Answer 6: (a).   Answer 7: (c). Answer 8: (d).   Answer 9: (d).   Answer 10: (c).

 Reproduction in Organisms - More Objective Questions Test Series with Answers

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JEE Main - 2018 Admission Notification by CBSE

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Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

Admission Notice Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) - 2018

CBSE has issued a notice that in pursuance of MHRD, Govt of India, the 6th Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) 2018 will be conducted on 8-April-18 (Sunday) by the JEE  Apex Board for admission to undergraduate engineering programmes in NITS, IITs and other centrally funded technical institutions etc.
The states of Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Uttarakhand, and Nagaland & Odisha have joined JEE (Main) system. Therefore, the candidates seeking admission to the institutions in these states, which were earlier admitting based on their state level examinations, are also advised to fill in JEE (Main) - 2018 application form online.
The JEE (Main) will also be an eligibility test for JEE (Advanced ),  which the candidate has to take if he/she is aspiring for admission to the undergraduate programmes offered by the IITs& ISM. The candidates are advised to see the JEE (Advanced) website www.jeeadv.ac.in for information related to JEE (Advanced).
The detailed information bulletin containing details of examination, syllabus, eligibility criteria to appear and more wool be available on JEE (Main) website www.jeemain.nic.in on 20.11.2017. The aspiring candidates are requested to download the information bulletin from above mentioned website only and read the same carefully before applying.  The eligibility criteria for JEE (Main) and JEE (Advanced) are different. Candidates need to read the information bulletin carefully and ensure their eligibility as per the criteria laid down for JEE (Main) and JEE (Advanced).
The process of Aadhaar authentication before submission of online form will be notified by CBSE separately.
How to Apply, Deadline
The aspiring candidates have to apply online only through JEE (Main) website www.jeemain.nic.in.
The online application starts: 1-Dec-2017.
Last date for application: 1-Jan-2018.
Last date for payment of fees: 2-Jan-2018.
Further Contact
Executive Director (JAB)
H-149, Sector-63
Noida - 201309
Tel: 7042399520, 7042399521, 7042399526
Web: www.jeemain.nic.in
E-mail: jeemain@nic.in 

Biology Objective Questions Test Series - Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants

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Free online solved Biology objective questions (MCQ) test series and practice questions on Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants for various competitive examinations, NEET, AIPMT, MCAT, NEST, admission tests.

Diversity in The Living World - Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants

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Biology MCQ : Biology Objective Questions : Practice Test Series with Solutions
India Study Solution Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11 - 20)

Question 11: Horse tails are a group of
a. Algae    b. Gymnosperms    c. Pteridophytes   
d. Bryophytes

Question 12: In which fact Albugo is similar to animals
a. In being parasitic
b. In movement
c. In reserve food
d. In reproduction

Question 13: After germination the megaspore give rise to
a. Female gametophyte
b. Antheridia
c. Male gametophyte
d. Antherozoid

Question 14: What is the common name of Sphagnum?
a. Peat moss
b. Trough moss
c. Bog moss
d. All the above

Question 15: The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by –
a. Albugo candida
b. Puccinia graminis tritici
c. Ustilago nuda
d. Cleviceps purpurea

Question 16: Canada balsam is obtained from
a. Pinus excels
b. Abies balsemia
c. Cedrus deodara
d. Junipers

Question 17: Bread mould is the common name of
a. Batrachospermum
b. Rhizopus
c. Agaricus
d. Bacillus

Question 18: Cytotaxonomy is connected with
a. Chemical composition of cytoplasm
b. Cell organelles
c. Cytochromes
d. Shape and size of cells

Question 19: What is necessary for seed formation?
a. Heterospory
b. Growth of the megaspore within sporangium
c. Both of above
d. Growth of microspore within the sporangium

Question 20: Viruses posses
a. Ribosomes to synthesise protein
b. Organelles for its vital mechanisms
c. Either DNA or RNA
d. None of these


India Study Solution
Biology: Diversity in the Living World - Plant Kingdom, Classification of Plants
Solutions of India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 2 (Q.No.11 – 20)

Answer 11: (c).   Answer 12: (c).   Answer 13: (a).   Answer 14: (d).   Answer 15: (b).    Answer 16: (b).   Answer 17: (b).   Answer 18: (b).   Answer 19: (c).   Answer 20: (c).

Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants  - More Objective Questions, Test Series with Solutions
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Chemistry Solved Objective Test Series: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure for NEET, IITJEE

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Chemistryonline solved objective test series (MCQ) with hints helpful for preparing IITJEE, NEET, Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, Joint Entrance Exams, NEST and other competitions.

Chemistry Test Series (MCQ Practice Questions)
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Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Syllabus:
Chemical combination; Kossel-Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding; Lattice Energy; Covalent Bond; Octet Rule; Ionic and electrovalent Bond; Electrovalency; Covalency; Writing formula of an ionic compound; Coordinate Bond; Metallic Bond; Bond parameters - bond length, bond angle, bond enthalpy, bond order, resonance structures, polarity of bonds; The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory; Valence Bond Theory; Geometry of molecules; Hybridisation; Molecular Orbital Theory; Bonding in some Homonuclear Diatomic Molecules; Hydrogen Bonding
Chemistry Test Series: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
MCQ Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11-20)

Question 11: The attraction that non-polar molecules have for each other is primarily caused by –
a. Van der Waal’s forces
b. Difference in electronegativities
c. Hydrogen bonding
d. High ionisation energy

Question 12: The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is:
a. One sigma, one pi
b. Two sigma, one pi
c. Two sigma, two pi
d. One sigma, two pi

Question 13: Which of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?
a. He2+
b. H2
c. H2+
d. H2-

Question 14: Which of the following molecules has the highest bond order?
a. O2-
b. O2
c. O2+
d. O22-

Question 15: Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of –
a. Free electrons
b. Free ions
c. Free molecules
d. Free atoms

Question 16: Which of the following have low lattice energy?
a. Cs-F
b. Cs-Cl
c. Cs-Br
d. Cs-I

Question 17: Which one is electron deficient compound?
a. ICl
b. BCl3
c. NH3
d. PCl3

Question 18: Which of the following is least ionic?
a. BeI2
b. BeCl2
c. BeBr2
d. BeF2

Question 19: The shape of sulphate ion is –
a. Tetrahedral
b. Square planar
c. Trigonal
d. Trigonal planar

Question 20: Which of the following has pÏ€ – dÏ€ bonding?
a. NO3-
b. SO32-
c. BO33-
d. CO32-






Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure - More Objective Test Series Questions with Answers

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Chemistry Objective Test Questions with Solutions: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

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Chemistry online fully solved (test series) practice questions (MCQ) helpful for preparing IITJEE, NEET, Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, Joint Entrance Exams, NEST and other competitions.

India Study Solution Chemistry Test Series (MCQ Practice Questions)

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Syllabus
Chemical combination; Kossel-Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding; Lattice Energy; Covalent Bond; Octet Rule; Ionic and electrovalent Bond; Electrovalency; Covalency; Writing formula of an ionic compound; Coordinate Bond; Metallic Bond; Bond parameters - bond length, bond angle, bond enthalpy, bond order, resonance structures, polarity of bonds; The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory; Valence Bond Theory; Geometry of molecules; Hybridisation; Molecular Orbital Theory; Bonding in some Homonuclear Diatomic Molecules; Hydrogen Bonding

Chemistry Test Series: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
MCQ Test Series – Set 1 (Q. No. 1-10)

Question 1: Tendency of I-, Br-, Cl- and F- to be oxidised is in order:
a. I- > Br- > Cl- > F-
b. I- < Br- < Cl- < F-
c. I- < Cl- > F- > Br-
d. I- = Br- > Cl- = F-

Question 2: Some statements about valence bond theory are given below –
a. The strength of bond depends upon extent of overlapping
b. The theory explains the directional nature of covalent bond
c. According to this theory oxygen molecule is paramagnetic in nature
(1) All are correct   (2) Only a and c   (3) Only a and b are correct   (4) All are wrong

Question 3: Which has maximum covalent character?
a. NaCl
b. SiCl4
c. AlCl3
d. MgCl2

Question 4: The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is –
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1

Question 5: The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is –
a. sp < sp2 < sp3
b. sp > sp2 < sp3
c. sp > sp2 > sp3
d. sp < sp2 > sp3

Question 6: The electronegativity of O, F, N, Cl and H are 3.5, 4.0, 3.2, 3.0 and 2.1 respectively. The strongest bond will be:
a. F-O
b. O-Cl
c. N-H
d. O-H

Question 7: When two atoms of chlorine combine to form one molecule of chlorine gas, the energy of the molecule is –
a. Greater than that of separate atoms
b. Equal to that of separate atoms
c. Lower than that of separate atoms
d. None of these

Question 8: Which of the following species is not correctly matched with its geometry according to the VSEPR theory?
a. BrF6+ → octahedral
b. SnCl5- → trigonal bipyramidal
c. ClF2- → linear
d. IF4+ → T-shape

Question 9: Variable valency is shown by:
a. s-block elements
b. d-block elements
c. p- and d-block elements
d. all elements

Question 10: Covalent compounds are generally soluble in –
a. Polar solvents
b. Non-polar solvents
c. Concentrated acids
d. All solvents




Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure - More Objective Questions with Answers

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