Thermodynamics - Free online Chemistry MCQ Test Series, Practice Questions with Solutions for JEE, NEET, Engineering and Medical Admission Tests

Chemistry Solved MCQ Test Series, Practice Questions

NEET, IIT JEE Main, AIIMS, NTSE

Welcome to your own site India Study Solution Below you will get carefully selected 10 MCQ practice questions in our each Test Series with hints & solutions (given at the end) from Chemistry Solutions chapter - Thermodynamics, Thermochemistry.
All these are typically important questions for NEET-UG, JEE Main & Advanced (IIT) AIIMS, JIPMER, COMEDK, MBBS Admission Tests, Engineering Entrance Exams, NEST and other such competitive exams.

Thermodynamics (Syllabus for NEET and JEE):

Fundamentals of thermodynamics: System and surroundings, extensive and intensive properties, state functions, types of processes. Thermal equilibrium, Zeroth law of thermodynamics, concept of temperature. First  law  of  thermodynamics: internal  energy  and  enthalpy,  heat  capacity  and  specific  heat, measurement of U and H, Hess’s law of constant heat summation. Enthalpies of bond dissociation, combustion, formation, atomization, sublimation, phase transition, ionization, solution and dilution. Introduction of entropy as state function. Second law of thermodynamics: Gibbs energy change for spontaneous and non-spontaneous processes, reversible and irreversible processes, criteria for equilibrium and spontaneity. Carnot engine and its efficiency. Third law of thermodynamics: Brief introduction.

Chemistry Practice Questions: Thermodynamics (Thermochemistry)MCQ Test Series – Set 1 (Q. No. 1-10)

Question 1: Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Only internal energy is a state function but not work.

b. Only work is a state function but not internal energy.

c. Both internal energy and work are state functions.

d. Neither internal energy nor work is a state function.

Question 2: The amount of water that can be dissociated by the amount of heat liberated when 49 g H₂SO₄ and 20 g NaOH are mixed and reacted in aqueous solution is:

a. 1.803

b. 3.58

c. 0.895

d. 17.9

Question 3: A sample of 2 kg of helium (assumed ideal) is taken through the process ABC and another sample of 2 kg of the same gas is taken through the process ADC. Then the temperature of the states A and B are (Given R = 8.3 joules/mol K):

  

a. T_A = 120.5K, T_B = 120.5K

b. T_A = 241 K, T_B = 241 K

c. T_A = 120.5 K, T_B = 241 K

d. T_A = 241 K, T_B = 482 K

Question 4: What is the work done against the atmosphere when 25 grams of water vaporises at 373 K against a constant external pressure of atm ? Assume that steam obeys perfect gas laws. Given that the molar enthalpy of vaporization is 9.72 kcal/mole, what is the change of internal energy in the above process?

a. 1294.0 cals, 11247 cals

b. 921.4 cals, 11074 cals

c. 1024.8 cals, 12470.6 cals

d. 1129.3 cals, 10207 cals

Question 5: Warming ammonium chloride with sodium hydroxide in a test tube is an example of:

a. Closed system

b. Isolated system

c. Open system

d. None of these

Question 6: Adiabatic process involves

a. Q = 0

b. ∆E = 0

c. ∆W = 0

d. ∆V = 0

Question 7: A gas expands from 10 litres to 20 litres against a constant external pressure of 10 atm. The pressure-volume work done by the system is

a. 100 L atm

b. -100 L atm

c. 10 L atm

d. -10 L atm

Question 8: In an isothermal expansion of a gaseous sample the correct relation is (consider w (work) with sign according to new IUPAC convention)

[The reversible and irreversible processes are carried out between same initial and final states]

a. w_rev  > w_irrev

b. w_irrev  > w_rev

c. q_rev< q_irrev

d. cannot be predicted

Question 9: A tightly closed thermoflask contains some ice cubes. This constitutes

a. closed system

b. open system

c. isolated system

d. Non-thermodynamic system

Question 10: The process CO₂ (g) + H₂O → 2H⁺ (aq) + CO₃^-2 (aq),

∆H = +2000J taking place in a closed vessel is accompanied with [given S⁰ of CO₂, H₂O, H⁺ (aq) & CO₃^-2(aq) = 213, 70, 0 & 57J/Mol/K]

a. DS_sys = -340 J/K

b. DS_sur ≈ -7KJ/K

c. DS_total = -333 J/K

d. DS_sys = -340 J/K

India Study Solution - Hints and Solutions Chemistry MCQ Test Series

Thermodynamics

Solutions of Chemistry Test Series (MCQ) – Set 1 (Q. No.1 –10)

https://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 1: a. Answer 2: a.

Answer 3: c. Hint:

T₂ = 4T­­₁

P_A V_A = nRT_A

5 x 10 = [(2 x 1000) ÷ 2] x 0.082 T_A

or, T_A = 120.5,

at constant volume, (P_A / T_A) = (P_B / T_B)

T_B = P_B.T_A / T_A = 241 K.

Answer 4: c. Hint:

Mole of H₂O = 1.39

Pv = nRT

1 x v = 1.39 x 0.082 x 373

v = 42.8.

w = Pext. dv = 1 x [42.8] atm x lit

= (– 42.8 x 101.325) J = [–(42.8 x 101.325) ÷ 4.2] cal

= 1024.8 cal

∆H = ∆E + (P∆v) = 12470.6 cal/s.

Answer 5: c. Answer 6: c. Answer 7: b. Answer 8: b. Answer 9: c. Answer 10: a.

 THERMODYNAMICS - India Study Solution Chemistry Test Series Questions

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45 lakh candidates stuck as JEE, NEET other major Entrance Tests deferred due to Nation-wide lockdown amid Corona Virus outbreak

As many as 45 lakh students preparing for major competitive examinations scheduled over the next three months are stranded as the nationwide lockdown in the wake of corona virus outbreak has upset the examination calendar by at least a month.

JEE Advanced, JEE Main, NEET, UGC-NET, CSIR UGC-NET, Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) scheduled in April, May and June 2020 will be affected by this lockdown.

Indian Government, NTA has notified that JEE and NEET Entrance Tests have been postponed to the last week of May keeping in mind the three week National lockdown due to Corona virus outbreak in India.

The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) whose marks are used for admission in Medical Colleges across the country was scheduled to be held on 3rd May. As of now NEET is proposed to be held in the last week of May’20, exact dates will be announced later after assessing the situation due to corona virus pandemic.

Similarly the Engineering Entrance Test JEE Main has been postponed till last week of may as per the official statement issued yesterday 27^th March’20 in view of the current situation prevailing in the country due to Corona virus outbreak. The exam conducting agency NTA (National Testing Agency) has released a notification in which it has intimated to candidates that the examination dates will be announced letter after assessing the situation.

NEET is held annually for admission to undergraduate medical courses MBBS, BDS and Ayush programs through this examination. Admission to veterinary courses are also done on the basis of NEET score.

JEE main is held for admission to undergraduate engineering programs at NITs, IITs, other centrally funded technical institutions, cftri Institutions funded by participating State Governments. The exam is held twice a year and candidates are allowed to appear for both these examinations.

As of now, both NEET and JEE have been postponed till further dates are announced by NTA. These examinations were scheduled to be held in April and May 2020. NTA is yet to announce about other examinations.

Free online Physics MCQ Test Series, Practice Questions with Solutions on Kinematics for JEE, NEET, IIT, AIPMT

Welcome back to 'India Study Solution’ Physics MCQ Test Series / Practice Questions Section, This section contains MCQ and Objective Test Series each set containing 10 most important questions with hints & solutions from the chapter KINEMATICS (syllabus included below).

Physics Notes and Study Materials with Key Points to remember and important Formulae and more on Kinematics - Motion in a straight line, Uniform and Non-uniform acceleration, Relative velocity, Scalars and Vectors and all topics in syllabus (provided at the end of hints / solutions) will be published separately (link for which will be provided here) 

Kinematics: Physics Guide and Solution

MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No.21-30)

Question 21: The speed-time graph of an object moving along a solid curve is shown in the adjacent fig. The distance traversed by the object from t - 0 to t = 3 is -

a. 10/2 m

b. 10/4 m

c. 10/3 m

d. 10/5 m

Question 22: The slope of velocity-time graph for uniform motion of an object is -

a. unity

b. zero

c. infinite

d. more than unity with some finite value

Question 23: A point mass starts moving in a straight line with constant acceleration f from rest at t =0. At time t = 2s, the acceleration changes the sign, remaining the same in magnitude. The mass returns to the initial position at time t = t₀ after start of motion. Here t₀ is:

a. 4s

b. (4 + 2√2)s

c. (2 + 2√2)s

d. (4 + 4√2)s

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Question 24: The displacement of a body is given by s = (gt²)/2, where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity. The velocity of the body at any instant ‘t’ is given by -  

a. (gt³)/6

b. (gt²)/2

c. gt

d. (gt)/2

Question 25: Two particles start from rest simultaneously and are equally accelerated. Throughout the motion, the relative velocity of one with respect to other is -   

a. zero

b. non-zero and directed parallel to acceleration

c. non-zero and directed opposite to acceleration

d. directed perpendicular to the acceleration

Question 26: A particle moves with uniform acceleration and v₁, v₂ and v₃ denote the average velocities in the three successive intervals of time t₁, t₂ and t₃. Which of the following relations is correct?

a. (v₁ – v₂) : (v₂ – v₃) = (t₁ – t₂) : (t₂ + t₃)

b. (v₁ – v₂) : (v₂ – v₃) = (t₁ + t₂) : (t₂ + t₃)

c. (v₁ – v₂) : (v₂ – v₃) = (t₁ – t₂) : (t₁ – t₃)

d. (v₁ – v₂) : (v₂ – v₃) = (t₁ – t₂) : (t₂ – t₃)

Question 27: The vertical height of point P above the ground is twice of that of Q. A stone is projected downward with a speed of 5 m/s from P and at the same time another stone is projected upward with the same speed from Q. Both stone reach the ground simultaneously, then -

a. PQ = 30 m

b. Time of flight of stones = 3 s

c. Both (a) and (b) are correct

d. Both (a) and (b) are wrong

Question 28: Which of the following position-time graphs shows an object moving with negative acceleration?

Question 29: The total vertical distance covered by a freely falling body in a given time is directly proportional to -

a. time

b. square of time

c. square of acceleration due to gravity

d. product of the time and acceleration due to gravity

Question 30: A 100 m long train crosses a man travelling at 5 km/h, in opposite direction, in 7.2 s, then the velocity of the train is -

a. 40 km/s

b. 25 km/s

c. 20 km/s

d. 45 km/s

India Study Solution

Physics Guide and Solution: KINEMATICS

Hints & Solutions of Practice Questions / MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No.21–30)

Answer 21: b.  Answer 22: b. 

Answer 23: b. 

Answer 24: c. 

Answer 25: a. (Hint: They will have the same velocity at all instants and hence, their relative velocity is zero.)

Answer 26: b. 

Answer 27: c.

Answer 28: c.  Answer 29: b.

Answer 30: d.

Kinematics Syllabus for JEE Main and NEET:

Frame of reference, Motion in a straight line, Uniform and Non-uniform motion, Average speed and instantaneous velocity, Uniformly accelerated motion, Velocity - Time, Position - Time graphs, Relations for uniformly accelerated motion, Relative velocity, Motion in a plane.

Scalars and Vectors, Vector addition and subtraction, Zero vector, Scalar and vector products, Unit vector, Resolution of a vector, Position and Displacement vector, General vector and notation, Equality of vector, Multiplication of vector and a real number.

Please click on the link below for more solved Test Series on Kinematics, confidence boosting practice questions with hints and answers for preparing NEET, AIPMT, JEE Main, Medical, Dental Entrance Exams, Engineering Entrance Exams; MBBS and Engineering Admission Tests, NTSE, KVPY and other competitive exams.

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KINEMATICS - India Study Solution Test Series Questions

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Error Analysis, Classification, Types and Definition of Errors | Free online notes, study materials on Physics for NEET, JEE, AIPMT, IIT

No measurement is perfect. Measured value of a physical quantity is always different from the true value. The difference between true and measured value of a physical quantity is termed Error. The errors involved in measurement cannot be removed completely.
Two important terms measurement and error are - Accuracy, Precision and Discrepancy

Accuracy: This indicates how close the measured value is to the true value of the quantity. Accuracy increases with reducing errors. This means as we reduce the errors, the measurement becomes more accurate.

Precision: This indicates as to what resolution or limit a quantity has been measured. It is not necessary that a more precise value will also be more accurate.

Discrepancy: The difference between the two measured values of a physical quantity is known as discrepancy.

Other Topics from this Chapter

Physical Quantities - Fundamental or Basic, Derived, Supplementary quantities

Units - International System of Units, SI Units, Properties and Definitions, Norms for writing Unit Symbols

Notes on Measurements

Significant Figures and its Rules, Rounding Off a Digit

Types and Definition of Errors, Errors in Measurement, Error Analysis

Dimensions, Dimensional Formulae, Dimensional Equation

Dimensional Analysis and its Applications

ERROR ANALYSIS | CLASSIFICATION OF ERRORS | TYPES & DEFINITION OF ERRORS

Classification of errors can be done in two ways. First, based on the cause of errors such as - Systematic Errors and Random Errors. Second classification is based on the magnitude or size of errors such as - Absolute Error, Mean Absolute Error, Relative or Functional Error, Percentage Error.

Systematic Errors

These are the errors that happen because of various causes which are known to us. A systematic error can, therefore, be minimised. Systematic errors may be due to imperfect technique, alteration of the quantity being measured, carelessness or mistakes on the past of observer. These errors occur in one direction only hence, either positive or negative. If the measured value is greater than the true value, the error is said to be positive and if the measured value is lesser than the true value then it will be said as negative. Systematic errors can be of following types -
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Instrumental Error

These errors arise when the measuring instrument or apparatus itself has some defect in it such as:  improper calibration, defect in designing, zero error (in vernier calipers or screw gauge or meter scale). An instrument error is a constant type of error. These errors can be minimised by using more accurate instruments, applying zero correction, as required.

Observational or Personal Error

Such errors are caused mostly due to carelessness or casual behaviour of an observer. For example, if an observer while reading the volume of water in a beaker becomes casual and keeps his eyes below the meniscus, his reading will be wolf because of Parallax. Also termed as Gross Error, may be due (i) negligence towards sources of error due to overlooking of sources of error by the observer, (ii) the observer, without carrying for last count goes on taking wrong observations, (iii) wrong recording of observation, etc.

Error due to Imperfection and Unavoidable Conditions

As the name suggests these errors are due to the external conditions or due to ignoring certain facts. For example, errors due to changes in temperature, pressure, humidity, air resistance etc. may sometimes affect the final result for not taking these factors into consideration. However, these errors can also be reduced by applying proper corrections to the formula used.

How to minimise Systematic Errors

Systematic errors can be minimised by more accurate instruments, and improved experimental techniques. One should take proper precautions and remain unbiased as far as possible while doing experiments. Further, necessary corrections should be done for the instruments having zero errors after talking readings.

Random Errors

The errors arise due to unknown causes. Random errors would occur irregularly and can have any sign - positive or negative. The magnitude or the size of such errors can also vary randomly.  Since the causes of random errors are not known so, it is not possible to remove them completely.

Least Count Error

The smallest value of the measurement that can be directly taken from a measuring instrument is called the least count (LC) or resolution of the instrument. LC error can arise and depends on the precision provided by the measuring instrument. Thus last count error is another type of constant error and can be reduced by using high precision instruments along with improved experimental techniques. (Please find in our separate post - Formula for How to calculate LC of vernier callipers, screw gauge in Errors in Measurement)

Absolute Error

The magnitude of the difference between the true value and the measured value is called absolute error. It is always positive.

Mean Absolute Error

The arithmetic mean of the magnitudes of individual absolute errors is called the mean absolute error. Thus,

Relative or Fractional Error

The relative error or fractional error is the ratio of the mean absolute error Da_mean to the mean value of the quantity measured.

Percentage Error

The relative error expressed in percentage is Percentage Error. It is denoted by da.

Standard Error

The errors which take into account all the factors affecting the accuracy of result, is known as the Standard Error.

Probable Error

The errors calculated by using the principle of probability, are Probable Errors. According to Bessels Formula, 

<< Significant Figures,Rounding Off, Rules for Algebraic Operations

 Combination of Errors, Errors in Measurement >>

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