Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction - Objective questions answers | Test series with solutions

Physics objective questions answers, MCQ Test Series with solutions for NEET, AIPMT, IIT JEE, other Medical and Engineering Entrance Exams; Admission Tests.

Physics Objective Questions with Solutions | Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction (Syllabus)

Force and Inertia; Law of Inertia; Newton’s First Law of Motion; Center of Mass; Momentum; Newton’s Second Law of Motion; Impulse; Newton’s Third Law of Motion; Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum and its applications; Variable Mass; Free Body Diagrams; Pulleys; Equilibrium of Concurrent Forces; Constraint Equations; Pseudo Force; Static and Kinetic Friction; Laws of Friction; Rolling Friction; Centripetal Force and its applications; Impulse; Collision

Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction

Solved Multiple Choice Questions Test Series (MCQ) – Set 3 (Q. No 21-30)

Question 21: Two weights W₁ and W₂ are suspended from the ends of a light string passing over a smooth fixed pulley. If the pulley is pulled up at an acceleration g. The tension in the string will be:

Question 22: A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 60⁰ and with speed of 10 m/s and returns at the same angle. The impact time is 0.2 sec. Calculate force exerted on the wall:

a. 150√3 N 

b. 100 N

c. 50√3 N

d. 75√3 N

Question 23: Ten coins each of mass 10 gm are placed one above the other. The reaction force exerted by 7^th coin from the bottom on the 8^th coin is –

a. 0.3 N

b. 0.2 N

c. 0.4 N

d. 0.7 N

Question 24: Consider the situation shown in fig. The wall is smooth but the surface of A and B in contact are rough. The friction on B due to A in equilibrium – 

a. Is upward

b. Is downward

c. Is zero

d. The system cannot remain in equilibrium

Question 25: A particle moves in the xy plane under the action of a force F such that the value of its linear momentum (P) at any time t is, P_x = 2 cos t, P_y = 2 sin t. The angle θ between P and F at that time t will be:

a. 0⁰

b. 30⁰

c. 90⁰

d. 180⁰

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Question 26: A rocket of mass 6000 kg is set for vertical firing. If the exhaust speed is 1000m/sec. The rate of mass of gas ejected to supply a thrust needed to give the rocket an initial upward acceleration of 20.2 m/s² is –

a. 150 kg/sec

b. 160 kg/sec

c. 28 kg/sec

d. 180 kg/sec

Question 27: If the coefficient of friction of a surface is √3, then the angle of inclination of the plane to make a body on it just to slide, is –

a. 30⁰

b. 45⁰

c. 60⁰

d. 750⁰

Question 28: In the shown in the figure, the pulley has a mass 3m. Neglecting friction on the contact surface, the force exerted by the supporting rope AB on the ceiling is:

a. 6 mg      

b. 3 mg

c. 4 mg

d. None of the above

Question 29: Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 16 kg at rest to act upon by same force. The ratio of times required to attain the same speed is –

a. 1: 1

b. 4: 1

c. 1: 4

d. 1: 2

Question 30: Two masses A and B 0f 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are connected with a string passing over a frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction of A with the table is 0.2. The minimum mass of C that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving is equal to:

a. 15 kg

b. 10 kg

c. 5 kg

d. 20 kg

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Atomic Structure | Structure of Atoms - Solved MCQ Test Series for IITJEE, NEET and other Entrance Exams

India Study Solution MCQ Test Series (Multiple Choice Questions) expected in NEET, IIT JEE, Medical and Engineering Entrance Exams; Admission Tests. 

(Click on the link at the end to download Hints and Answers in Pdf format.)

Chemistry MCQ Test Series Objective Questions on Atomic Structure / Structure of Atoms 

Sub-atomic Particles; Discovery of Fundamental Particles; Cathode Rays; Positive Rays; Rutherford Model; Moseley Experiment - Atomic Number; Isotopes and Isobars; Concept of Shells and Sub-shells; Electromagnetic Radiations; Emission Spectra; Hydrogen Spectrum; Atomic Models; Bohr’s Model of Atom; Sommerfeld’s Extension of Bohr Theory; Dual Nature of Matter and Light; Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle; Wave Mechanical Model of Atom; Concept of Orbital; Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom; Shapes of s, p and d Orbitals; Pauli’s Exclusion Principle; Aufbau Principlr; Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity (Orbital Diagrams); Electronic Configuration of Elements; Photoelectric Effect; Nuclear Stability; The Whole Number Rule and Packing Fraction; The Magic Numbers.       

Chemistry Objective Questions: Atomic Structure | Structure of Atom

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ Test Series) – Set 3 (Q. No.21-30)

Question 21: If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is 2000 Å, what is the energy in ergs?

a. 9.94 x 10^-12

b. 9.94 x 10^-10

c. 4.97 x 10^-12

d. 4.97 x 10^-19

Question 22: Who first time ruled out the existence of definite paths of electron?

a. de Broglie

b. Heisenberg

c. Neils Bohr

d. Einstein

Question 23: An atom has x energy level then total number of lines in its spectrum are:

a. 1 + 2 + 3………(x + 1)

b. 1 + 2 + 3………(x)²

c. 1 + 2 + 3………(x – 1)

d. (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 4)

Question 24: Bohr advanced the idea of:

a. Stationary electrons

b. Stationary nucleus

c. Stationary orbits

d. Elliptical orbits

Question 25: Brackett series is produced when the electrons from outer orbits jump to

a. Third orbit

b. Second orbit

c. Fourth orbit

d. Fifth orbit

Question 26: No. of visible lines when an electron returns from 5^th orbit to ground state in H spectrum:

a. 5

b. 4

c. 3

d. 10

Question 27: Who modified Bohr Theory by introducing elliptical orbits for electron path?

a. Hund

b. Thomson

c. Rutherford

d. Sommerfeld

Question 28: The main energy shell in which the electron is present is given by –

a. Principal quantum number

b. Azimuthal quantum number

c. Spin quantum number

d. Magnetic quantum number

Question 29: Which of the following is not permissible?

a. n = 4, l = 3, m = 0

b. n = 4, l = 2, m = 1

c. n = 4, l = 4, m = 1

d. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0

Question 30: The longest wavelength in Balmer series is –

a. 6563 Å

b. 18,650 Å

c. 7700 Å

d. 3,600 Å

India Study Solution - Solved Chemistry Objective Questions

Atomic Structure (Structure of Atom)

Solutions of Multiple Choice Questions Test Series (MCQ) – Set 3 (Q. No. 21 – 30)

http://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 21: (a).   Answer 22: (b).   Answer 23: (c).   Answer 24: (c).   Answer 25: (c).   Answer 26: (c).   Answer 27: (d).   Answer 28: (a).   Answer 29: (c).   Answer 30: (a).

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CBSE to declare IIT-JEE Main 2018 results on April 30 afternoon

The results for the Indian Institutes of Technology-Joint Entrance Exam (IIT-JEE) Main 2018 will be announced today on April 30 by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). Around fourteen lakh students who appeared for the IIT-JEE Main 2018 online and offline examination can check their results for both JEE Main which are expected to be declared late afternoon today on the official websites - jeemain.nic.in, cbseresults.nic.in or results.nic.in

The future of these engineering aspirants who have appeared for the exam on April 8 (offline) and April 15 will be decided after CBSE releases the result.

The scores of candidates -- All India and category ranks -- obtained will be displayed. The rank card can also be downloaded by candidates for admission purposes.

How and where to check your IIT JEE Main result

• CBSE announces the result at jeemain.nic.in and cbseresults.nic.in.
• To check the result, you have to log in and enter your JEE Main roll number and date of birth.
• The result which is displayed on the screen can be downloaded as the rank card.
• Use the option to print the rank card. It is advised to take a copy.
• It is also better to thoroughly check all details mentioned on the rank card.

How to confirm if you qualified for JEE Advanced or not? (IIT JEE Advanced 2018)

The JEE main is conducted every year for admission to various engineering and architecture courses in NITs, IITs and other CFTIs across the country. The exam is also an entrance examination for JEE Advanced.

The candidates who clear the JEE Main 2018 will be considered qualified for appearing in JEE Advanced 2018 examination. The JEE Advanced examination is conducted for admission to IITs.

The CBSE Board will also release the JEE main 2018 result along with the mark on - cbseresults.nic.in and results.nic.in.

Since JEE Main is the screening test for JEE Advanced, the top 2,24,000 candidates who successfully clear it must seriously look into preparing for JEE Advanced 2018.

CBSE will announce the JEE Main cutoff 2018 which will specify the scores required to be eligible to apply and appear for JEE Advanced 2018 which will be held on May 20 .

You can fill the JEE Advanced application form 2018 between May 2 and May 7.

Eligibility for NITs, IIITs and CFTIs Admissions

The Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) will conduct common counseling for the IITs, NITs, IIITs and GFTIs from June 19 tentatively.

Allotment will be done according to the ranks and preferences selected during JoSAA registration.

Candidates who have a valid rank in the JEE Main or JEE Advanced are eligible to apply for the admissions in these institutes.

Animal Kingdom - Classification of Animals: Solved Biology Practice Questions, Test Series for NEET-ug, AIPMT, Entrance Exams, Admission Tests

Welcome Friends!

If you are searching for Online Biology, Chemistry, Physics study materials, notes, expected questions or a complete FREE Online Guide for NEET, MCAT or any other Medical Entrance Examination then you have arrived at the right place!

Below given are Solved Biology Objective Questions (India Study Solution MCQ Test Series) for preparation of NEET-ug, AIPMT and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental Admission Tests for MBBS, BDS and other competitions.
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Animal Kingdom - Classification of Animals (Syllabus)

Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate up to phyla level and chordate up to classes level (three to five salient features and at least two examples). Protozoa. Porifera. Coelenterata (Cnidaria). Ctenophora. Platyhelminthes. Aschelminthes. Annelida. Arthropoda. Mollusca. Echinodermata. Hemichordata. Uro-chordata. Pisces. Amphibia. Reptilia. Aves. Mammalia.  

Biology Objective Questions: Animal Kingdom and Classification of Animals

 Solved Biology Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No.21 - 30)

For previous questions click: NEET, AIPMT preparation: Biology objective questions on Animal Kingdom - Classification of Animals 

Question 21: Body of molluscs is

a. Unsegmented

b. Covered by a calcareous shell

c. Divided into distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump

d. All of these

Question 22: A sponge can be distinguished by the presence of

a. Coelenteron

b. Choanocytes

c. Tentacles

d. Calcareous skeleton

Question 23: Larval stage of urochordata is known as –

a. Tadpole

b. Miracidium

c. Cercaria

d. Cydippid

Question 24: Incorrect set is –

a. Torpedo – electric organs

b. Trygon – poison sting

c. Carcharodon – claspers on pelvic fins

d. Betta – no operculum

Question 25: Which one is the best silk?

a. Erisilk

b. Mulberry silk

c. Tusser silk

d. None of the above

Question 26: Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it?

a. All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)

b. All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side

c. All sponges are marine and have collared cells

d. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing

Question 27: Which of the following character is exclusive to mammals?

a. Presence of a four chambered heart

b. Homoiothermic condition

c. Respiration by lungs

d. Presence of a diaphragm

Question 28: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

a. Ventral nerve cord

b. Closed circulatory system

c. Segmentation

d. Pseudocoelom

Question 29: First vertebrates attempted to transit from water to land are –

a. Reptiles

b. Aves

c. Amphibians

d. Insects

Question 30: Branchiostoma is an example of –

a. Hemichordata

b. Urochordata

c. Cephalochordata

d. None of the above

India Study Solution

Answers of Biology NEET Questions: Animal Kingdom and Classification of Animals

Solutions of MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21 – 30)

http://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 21: (d).   Answer 22: (b).   Answer 23: (a).   Answer 24: (d).   Answer 25: (b).   Answer 26: (b).   Answer 27: (d).   Answer 28: (d).   Answer 29: (c).   Answer 30: (b).

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