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Physics solved objective questions, test series: Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction

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Physics guide, solved MCQ test series, objective questions for preparing NEET, IITJEE, Joint Entrance Exams and other competitions.
Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction (Topics):
Force and Inertia; Law of Inertia; Newton’s First Law of Motion; Center of Mass; Momentum; Newton’s Second Law of Motion; Impulse; Newton’s Third Law of Motion; Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum and its applications; Variable Mass; Free Body Diagrams; Pulleys; Equilibrium of Concurrent Forces; Constraint Equations; Pseudo Force; Static and Kinetic Friction; Laws of Friction; Rolling Friction; Centripetal Force and its applications; Impulse; Collision  

Physics: Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – Set 2 (Q. No. (11-20)

Question 11: Two masses are connected by a string which passes over a pulley accelerating upward at a rate A as shown. If a1 and a2 be the acceleration of bodies 1 and 2 respectively then:
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Question 12: The pendulum hanging from the ceiling of a railway carriage makes angle 300 with the vertical, when it is accelerating. The acceleration of the carriage is:







Question 13:Two particles A and B, each of mass m, kept stationary by applying a horizontal force F = mg on particle B as shown in fig. Then –
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a. Tan β = 2 tan α     b. 2T1 = 5T2     c. T1 √2 = T2 √5    d. None of these
(1) a, b                     (2) b, c             (3) c, d                 (4) a, c

Question 14: Action and reaction –
a. Act on two different objects
b. Have opposite direction
c. Have equal magnitude
d. All of these

Question 15: Two block A and B placed on a plane surface as shown in the figure. The mass of block A is 100 kg and that of block B is 200 kg. Block A is tied to a stand and block B is pulled by a force F. If the coefficient of friction between the surfaces of A and B is 0.2 and the coefficient of friction between B and the plane is 0.3 then for the motion of B the minimum value of F will be –
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Question 16: If a block moving up an inclined plane at 300 with a velocity of 5 m/s, stops after 0.5 s, then, coefficient of friction will be nearly –
a. 0.5
b. 0.6
c. 0.9
d. 1.1

Question 17: A fireman wants to slide down a rope. The breaking load for the rope is 3/4th of the weight of the man. With what minimum acceleration should the fireman slide down? Acceleration due to gravity is g.
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Question 18: A 13 m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5 m from the wall. What should be the maximum coefficient of friction between ladder and floor, so that it remains in equilibrium?
a. 0.36
b. 0.72
c. 0.21
d. 0.52

Question 19: A bird is sitting in an air tight cage. The cage is put on a weighing machine. It reads W1. The bird now starts flying. The weighing machine reads W2. Then:
a. W1< W2
b. W2< W1
c. W1 = W2
d. None

Question 20: A body of mass M is kept on a rough horizontal surface (friction coefficient = µ). A person is trying to pull the body by applying a horizontal force but the body is not moving. The force by the surface on A is F where –







  Newton's Laws of Motion and Friction - Physics Objective Questions, Test Series 

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EduNews: CBSE guidelines about Aadhaar requirement to apply JEE Main 2018

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Aadhaar requirement for Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) - 2018

CBSE JEE Main (Joint Entrance Examination Main) Unit
In reference to the Admission Notification for JEE Main 2018 by CBSE regarding the provision of Aadhaar at the time of filling online application for Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) 2018, following guidelines / clarifications have been issued as per the latest CBSE notice (on 7th Dec’17):
1. The use of Aadhaar for the applicants of JEE (Main) 2018 will result in accuracy of the applicants’ details. This will also help in ascertaining identities of the applicants at the examination centres in a convenient and hassle free manner. Aadhaar obviates the need for producing multiple documents to prove one’s identity.
2. The provisions of Aadhaar Act and regulations under the Act have come into effect from 14th Sept’16 and according to CBSE circular, notifications to the effect were published in their official gazette. Section 57 of Aadhaar Act 2016 permits the use of Aadhaar Number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose pursuant to any law or any contract to this effect.
GUIDELINES FOR AADHAAR AUTHENTICATION BEFORE APPLYING JEE MAIN 2018
3. The notice says accordingly, CBSE has decided to use Aadhaar for the applicants of JEE Main 2018, and hereby notifies the following -
a.   Applicants, who are in the possession of Aadhaar, shall enter Aadhaar number, name, date of birth, gender in online application for JEE (Main) 2018 for the purpose of his/her identity and authentication thereof.
b.    Applicants not yet enrolled for Aadhaar, are hereby required to make application for Aadhaar enrolment in case he/she is entitled to obtain Aadhaar as per section 3 Aadhaar Act. Such applicant may visit any Aadhaar enrolment center to get enrolled for Aadhaar.
4. The above provisions shall be applicable in all states except J&K, Assam & Meghalaya.
5. The applicants who have passed or appearing in Class 12 examination from the states of J&K, Assam & Meghalaya need to enter the passport number, ration card number, bank account number (nationalised bank) or any valid Govt. identity number provided they should select the city of examination in these states only.           
Further Contact
Executive Director (JAB)
H-149, Sector-63
Noida - 201309
Tel: 7042399520, 7042399521, 7042399526
Web: www.jeemain.nic.in
E-mail: jeemain@nic.in
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EduNews: Odisha government confirms participation in the Joint Entrance Examination Main | JEE Main 2018

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EduNews: Odisha joins JEE Main 2018

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The Odisha government on Thursday confirmed is participation in the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE Main 2018) conducted by CBSE and urged students from Odisha to enrol themselves for this. According to CBSE notification, online application process for JEE Main 2018 will start from December 1.

Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Haryana and Nagaland are some other states which also decided to join Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main 2018) system recently.

How to apply JEE Main - 2018 (Joint Entrance Examination Main 2018), eligibility, deadline etc click:

Circular and Rotational Motions - Solved Physics Test Series, MCQ with Solutions

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Physics MCQ Test Series, Objective Questions with hints, solutions expected in Medical and Dental Entrance Exams, Engineering Entrance Exams; JEE, MBBS Admission Tests and such competitive exams.
Practice questions with solutions from some of these topics (randomly selected):
Kinematics of Circular Motion; Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion; Centripetal Force; Examples: vehicle on level circular road, vehicle on baked track; Angular Velocity and is relation with Linear Velocity; Torque or Moment of Force and Angular Momentum; Laws of Conservation of Angular Momentum; Theorems of perpendicular axes and parallel axes; Kinematics of Rotational Motion about a fixed axis; Rolling Motion; General relation among Position-Velocity-Acceleration for Motion in a plane and Uniform Circular Motion; Centrifugal Force; Motion in a vertical circle; Rotational Motion of a rigid body; Moment of Inertia; Angular Impulse.

Physics solved test series: Circular Motion, Rotational Motion

Multiple Choice Questions – Set 2 (Q No 11-20)

MCQ 11: A spool is pulled horizontally by two equal and opposite forces as shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct ?
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a. The centre of mass moves towards left
b. The centre of mass moves towards right
c. The centre of mass remains stationary
d. The net torque about the centre of mass of the spool is zero

MCQ 12: An aeroplane revolves in a circle above the surface of the earth at a fixed height with speed 100 km/hr. The change in velocity after completing ½ revolution will be –
a. 200 km/hr
b. 150 km/hr
c. 300 km/hr
d. 400 km/hr

MCQ 13: Angular momentum of a body is equal to the product of –
a. Moment of inertia and angular velocity
b. Centripetal force and radius
c. Linear velocity and angular velocity
d. Mass and angular velocity

MCQ 14: A car of mass m is taking a circular turn of radius ‘r’ on a frictional level road with a speed v. In order that the car does not skid –
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MCQ 15: A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?
a. π2 ms-2 and direction along the radius towards the centre
b. π2 ms-2 and direction along the radius away from the centre
c. π2 ms-2 and direction along the tangent to the circle
d. π2/4 ms-2 and direction along the radius towards the centre

MCQ 16: A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If its angular speed is 2 π rad s-1, the centripetal force on it is:
a. 4 π N
b. 8 π N
c. 4 π4 N
d. 8 π2 N

MCQ 17: Two identical hollow spheres roll down two inclined planes of same height but of different angles of inclination. Then, they reach the bottom –
a. With same speeds and in same time
b. With different speeds and in different times
c. With same speed but in different times
d. With different speeds in same time

MCQ 18: A mass m is revolving in a vertical circle at the end of a string of length 20 cm. By how much times does the tension of the string at the lowest point exceed the tension at the topmost point –
a. 2 mg
b. 4 mg
c. 6 mg
d. 8 mg

MCQ 19: Work done by friction in case of pure rolling:
a. Is always zero
b. Is always positive
c. Is always negative
d. May be positive, negative or zero

MCQ 20: A car is travelling at 36 kmph on a road. If µ = 0.5 between the tyres and the road, the minimum turning radius of the car is – (g = 10 ms-2)
a. 20m
b. 25m
c. 30m

d. 35m


 Circular Motion and Rotational Motion - More solved MCQ Questions, Test Series 

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Biology Objective Questions Test Series with Solutions: Reproduction in Organisms

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India Study Solution Biology online test series with fully solved practice objective questions (MCQ) helpful to prepare for NEET and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, MCAT, NEST and many other competitions.      
Solved objective questions MCQ from some of these topics covered -
Reproduction in Organisms (Syllabus)
Reproduction, a characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species; Modes of reproduction – Asexual and sexual; Asexual reproduction; Modes-Binary fission, sporulation, budding, gemmule, fragmentation; vegetative propagation in plants.

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Biology: Reproduction in Organisms

Multiple Choice Questions – Set 1 (Q. No. 1-10)

Question 1: Pollination by ants is –
a. Melacophily
b. Myrmecophily
c. Entomophily
d. Ornithophily

Question 2: The type of reproduction which will occur in an organism depend upon –
a. Morphology of the organism
b. Habitat and morphology of the organism
c. Morphology and physiology of the organism
d. The organism’s habitat, internal physiology and genetic makeup

Question 3: In vegetative propagation by tubers, which of following remains constant through generations –
a. Morphology
b. Vigour only
c. Vigour and morphology only
d. Morphology, vigour and disease resistance

Question 4: Study of pollen grains is –
a. Palaeobotany
b. Palaeontology
c. Palynology
d. Pomology

Question 5: Product of sexual reproduction generally generates –
a. Prolonged dormancy
b. New genetic combination leading to variation
c. Large biomass
d. Longer viability of seeds

Question 6: Diploid chromosome number in meiocytes of fruit fly is –
a. 8
b. 380
c. 12
d. 20

Question 7: The period from birth to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in animal’s life before they can reproduce sexually is called –
a. Vegetative phase
b. Somatic phase
c. Juvenile phase
d. Senescence phase

Question 8: If number of chromosomes in an egg cell is 8, then the number of chromosomes in endosperm is –
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24

Question 9: When offspring is produced by a single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation, then it is called –
a. Unisexual reproduction
b. Bisexual reproduction
c. Hermaphrodite sexual reproduction
d. Asexual reproduction

Question 10: The offspring produced through which of the following process are not exactly similar to their parents?
a. Parthenogenesis
b. Asexual reproduction
c. Sexual reproduction
d. Dizygotic twins

India Study Solution - Biology Objective Questions with Solutions
biology Test Series: reproduction in organisms
Solutions of Biology Test Series Questions – Set 1 (Q. No. 1 – 10)

Answer 1: (c).   Answer 2: (d).   Answer 3: (d).   Answer 4: (c).   Answer 5: (b).   Answer 6: (a).   Answer 7: (c). Answer 8: (d).   Answer 9: (d).   Answer 10: (c).

 Reproduction in Organisms - More Objective Questions Test Series with Answers

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