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Aadhaar not needed for NEET 2018 Application

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The Supreme Court ruled on Wednesday, 7th March that Aadhaar cannot be made mandatory for submitting National Medical Entrance Test NEET application form.

The court limited is interim order to the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET), through which students for undergraduate medical courses are selected.
NEET 2018 exam – which will be conducted by CBSE is scheduled to be held on May 6. The last date for submission of NEET 2018 application form is March 9. The court said CBSE should accept alternative proof of identity such as passport, driving licence, voter identity card etc. instead of insisting on Aadhaar cards.
Attorney-General K.K Venugopal, representing the Center, submitted that neither the government nor the Aadhaar issuer had asked the CBSE to make the card mandatory for NEET. The Attorney-General said the CBSE had on its own volition decided to insist on Aadhaar cards.  
However, in the same breath, Venugopal said the authorities had received complaints of a large number of impersonations for the NEET
Updated 9th March 2018: The CBSE has extended the last date for submitting the National Medical Entrance Exam - NEET 2018 applications to March 12.

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CBSE makes NEET a must for foreign MBBS, also disallow students of NIOS and other Private Boards

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The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued a notification on Friday, 9th Feb 2018 on NEET 2018 introducing some new requirements and changes:
India Study Solution - EduNews

Students wanting to pursue MBBS or any other undergraduate medicine courses in foreign universities will have to clear the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) from this year, 2018.
The notification also bars students paying out of open schools from taking NEET. This means students passing from National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) will not be able to take the NEET 2018, to be conducted by the CBSE. Private students passing out from other boards are also not allowed to take the NEET.
"The ministry of health has decided that candidates who wish to pursue MBBS or BDS from foreign medical colleges and foreign medical colleges need to qualify the NEET," said the information bulletin issued by the CBSE.
The Medical Council of India (MCI) which regulates medical education said the provision of NEET qualification has been introduced to ensure that only meritorious students go for medical education to foreign countries. According to one MCI sources, "Indian students mostly go to former USER countries, China and the Philippines. When they come back, they appear in an exam to be able to practice. But less than 25% students qualify the exam to be able to medical practice. The NEET qualification will ensure quality to some extent."
An NIOS official said the students paying out of the institutions were allowed to take NEET till last year. The MCI sources said the NIOS students, who pursue education in the correspondence mode, did not have practical classes and so could not be allowed to appear for the NEET (National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test).
As per the CBSE notice to be eligible for NEET one needs to have studied physics, chemistry, biology or bio-technology in the past two years of their 12 - year schooling.

 Some More Information about NEET
v   The state governments of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana have decided to offer the 15% all India quotas in medical colleges run by them. As the two states had earlier not participated in the programme, students from these states could not apply for admission under 15% quota in other states. Now that the two states have decided to implement the reservation, medical aspirants from these two states can apply for MBBS admission in colleges in other states under the all India quota.
v   The CBSE will hold the NEET in English and other regional languages like - Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Marathi, Odia, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
v   The results of NEET 2018 will be declared on 5th June 2018. NEET clearance is a must for all students seeking to study MBBS, BDS, and undergraduate medicine in India and abroad.

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NEET Questions Bank: Biology Solutions on Human Physiology - Locomotion and Movement

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Human Physiology - Locomotion and Movement

(NEET Syllabus): Origin Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular; Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle contraction; Skeletal system and its functions (To be dealt with the relevant practical of Practical syllabus); Joints; Disorders of muscular and skeletal system-Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy, Arthritis, Osteoporosis, Gout.

HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY (Locomotion and Movement)
Theoretical Questions - TQ 3 (Q. No.12 - 15)

Very Long Answer Type Questions

Question.12: How does calcium affect the process of muscle contraction?

Question.13: Explain sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.

Question.14: Explain the bones of fore limbs.

Question.15: Describe the various types of joints present in human body with examples.

Answer 12. Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states that contraction of muscle fibres takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor neuron. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibers connected to it constitutes a motor unit. The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor-end plate.
A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.
Increase in Ca2+ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin.
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge.
This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of "A" band. The "Z" line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction. It is clear from the above steps, that during shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the I bands get reduced, whereas the "A" bands retain the length.
The myosin, releasing the ADP and Pi  goes back to its relaxed state. A new ATP binds and the cross-bridge is broken. The ATP is again hydrolysed by the myosin head and the cycle of cross-bridge formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding.
The process continues till the Ca2+ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae resulting in the masking of actin filaments. This causes the return of "Z" lines back to their original position, i.e., relaxation. The reaction time of the fibres can vary in different muscles.

Answer 13. Two groups of workers (A.F.Huxley and Ralph Niedergerke 1954; H.E.Huxley and Jean Hanson 1954) proposed the sliding filament theory. The essential features of this theory are as follows:
1. During muscle contraction, the thin myofilaments slide inward towards the H-zone.
2. The sarcomere shortens, but the lengths of thin and thick myofilaments do not change.
3. The crossbridges of the thick myofilaments connect with portions of actin of the thin myofilaments. The myosin cross bridges move on the surface of thin myofilaments and the thin and thick myofilaments slide past each other.
4. As the thin myofilaments move past the thick myofilaments, the H-zone narrows and even disappears when the thin myofilaments meet at the centre of the sarcomere. Thus, the length of the sarcomere decreases during contraction. Size of I band also decreases.
5. The lengths of the thick and thin myofilaments do not change during muscle contraction.

Answer 14. Each arm consists of the following 30 bones:
1 humerus, 1 radius, 1 ulna, 8 carpal, 5 metacarpal bones, 5 digits (14 phalanges). Phalangeal formula: 2,3,3,3,3.
Upper rounded end of the humerus is called head which articulates into the glenoid cavity of the pectoral girdle. A greater and a lesser tubercles occur near the head.
The shaft of the humerus has a V-shaped deltoid ridge at about its middle. A pully like trochlea is present between two ridges. Its upper end has a larger olecranon process that forms the eminence of our elbow. The head of the radius articulates with the humerus. Each wrist is composed of eight carpals which are arranged in two rows: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum and pisiform in proximal row and trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and humate in distal row.

Answer 15. The structural arrangements of tissues by which bones are joined together are called joints. According to the mobility they are classified as fibrous or fixed or immovable joints, cartilaginous or slightly movable joints and synovial or freely movable joints.
1. Fibrous or Immovable Joints: In this type of joints there is no movement between the bones concerned. As the name suggests, there is white fibrous tissue between the ends of the bones. Examples of this type include - the joints between the bones of skull called sutures and the joints between the teeth and the maxilla and teeth and mandible.
2. Cartilaginous or Slightly Movable Joints: In this type there is a pad of white fibrocartilage between the ends of the bones taking part in the joints which allows for very slight movement. Movement is only possible because of compression of pad of cartilages. Examples of cartilaginous joints include the pubic symphysis of pubis and the joints between the vertebrae (intervertebral discs).
3. Synovial or Freely Movable Joints: A considerable movement is possible at all synovial joints. Synovial joints are of six types:
(i). A gliding joint- It is the simplest of the synovial joints. The articular surfaces of two bones are usually flat, permitting only back-and-forth and side-to-side movements. Gliding joints are found between the carpal bones and between the tarsal bones.
(ii). A hinge joint - It allows movement primarily in one plane. In a hinge joint spool (reel) surface of one bone fits into the concave surface of another bone. The elbow, the knee, ankle and interphalangeal hints are examples of hinge joints.
(iii). A pivot joint- This joint also allows movement in only one plane. In a pivot joint rounded or pointed bone fits into a shallow depression in another bone. The primary movement at a pivot joint is rotation.
(iv). Condyloid or ellipsoid joint- Allows movement in two planes, back & forth & side-to side. The joints between the metacarpals and phalanges (metacarpo-phalangeal joint) of the fingers are examples of ellipsoid joints.
(v). A saddle joint allows the same movements as an ellipsoid joint, but the movements are free. The joint between the carpal and metacarpal of thumb of the hand is an example of saddle joint.
(vi). A ball-and-socket joint- One bone of this joint forms a rounded head while the other bone forms a cup shaped structure into which the head fits. It allows free movement in all directions. It is most movable joint. Examples: hip joint and shoulder joint.

 Human Physiology: Locomotion and Movement - Biology Objective Questions 

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Locomotion and Movement (Human Physiology) - long answer expected questions for NEET-UG, AIPMT, MBBS entrance exams

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Human Physiology - Locomotion and Movement

(NEET Syllabus): Origin Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular; Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle contraction; Skeletal system and its functions (To be dealt with the relevant practical of Practical syllabus); Joints; Disorders of muscular and skeletal system-Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy, Arthritis, Osteoporosis, Gout.
HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY (Locomotion and Movement
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Spinal Cord
Theoretical Questions - TQ 2 (Q. No.9 - 11)

Long Answer Type Questions

Question.9: Describe structure of actin and myosin proteins.
Question.10: Distinguish between
(a) Pronator and Supinator
(b) Abductor and Adductor
Question.11: Explain the Bones of Rib Cage.
Answer.9:
Actin Proteins: Each actin filament is made up of the following components -
(a) F-actin: In each actin filament, two "F" (filamentous) actions helically wound to each other. Each "F" actin is a polymer of monomeric "G" (Globular) actins.
(b) Tropomyosin: Two filaments of another protein, tropomyosin also run close to the "F" actins throughout its length.
(c) Troponin: It is a complex protein which is distributed at regular intervals on the tropomyosin. In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin filaments.
Myosin: Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerised protein. Many monomeric proteins called Meromyosins constitute one thick filament. Each meromyosin has two important parts, a globular head with a short arm and a tail, the former being called the heavy meromyosin (HMM) and the latter, the light meromyosin (LMM). The HMM component, i.e.; the head and short arm projects outwards at regular distance and angle from each other from the surface of a polymerised myosin filament and is known as cross arm. The globular head is active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and active sites for actin.

Answer.10:
(a) Pronator and Supinator: The contraction of a pronator rotates the forearm to turn the palm downward or backward. Supinator is antagonist of pronator. A supinator contracts to rotate the forearm and thus to make palm face upward or forward.
(b) Abductor and Adductor: An abductor contracts to draw a bone away from the body midline. Muscle that brings the limb away from midline is called abductor. An adductor draws a bone towards the body midline. A muscle that brings the limb towards midline is called adductor. Abductor muscle is antagonist of adductor muscle.

Answer.11: There are 12 pairs of ribs. Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum. It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end and its hence, called bicephalic.
First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. Dorsally, they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage. The 8th,
9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join the seventh rib with the help of hyaline cartilage. These are called vertebral - chondral (false) ribs.

Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called floating ribs. Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together form the rib cage or thoracic cage.

 Human Physiology: Locomotion and Movement - Biology Objective Questions 

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Human Physiology - Locomotion and Movement : Biology short answer questions for NEET-UG, AIPMT, MBBS, Dental admission tests, JEE

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Human Physiology - Locomotion and Movement 

(NEET Syllabus): Origin Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular; Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle contraction; Skeletal system and its functions (To be dealt with the relevant practical of Practical syllabus); Joints; Disorders of muscular and skeletal system-Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy, Arthritis, Osteoporosis, Gout.

HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY (Locomotion and Movement)

Theoretical Questions - TQ 1 (Q. No. 1-8)

Very Short Answer Objective Questions
Question 1. Which bones are present in pectoral girdle?
Question 2. Write down the formula of vertebral column.
Question 3. Name the cells/tissues in human body which
(a) Exhibit ameboid movement
(b) Exhibit ciliary movement.
Question 4. Write down the phallangel formula of human forelimb.

Short Answer Objective Questions
Question 5. Differences between kyphosis and lordosis?
Question 6. Name the different bones of
(i) Middle ear.
(ii) Pelvic Girdle.
Question 7. Name the type of joint between the following:
(a) atlas and axis
(b) carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(c) femur and acetabulum
(d) between cranial bones.
Question 8. What is the difference between the matrix of bone and cartilage?

Answer 1. Scapula & Clavicle.
Answer 2. C7, T12, L5, S5, Co4.
Answer 3. (a) WBC & macrophages. (b) Sperm.
Answer 4. 23333
Answer 5. Kyphosis: Exaggeration of thoracic curve, resulting in "round-shouldered" appearance, also called hunch back.
Lordosis: An exaggeration of lumber curve, also called sway back.
Answer 6. (i) Malleus, Incus, Stapes. (ii) Ilium, Ischium, Pubis.
Answer 7. (a) Pivot joint. (b) Saddle joint. (c) Ball & Socket joint. (d) Fixed joint.

Answer 8. Bone and cartilage are specialised connective tissues. The former has a very hard matrix due to calcium salts in it and the latter has slightly pliable matrix due to chondroitin salts.

 Human Physiology: Locomotion and Movement - Biology Objective Questions 


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Genetics and Evolution - solved objective questions and MCQ test series

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Free Biology online Solution and Guide: solved Biology MCQ objective type practice questions, test series, for preparing NEET, MBBS Admission Tests, Medical Entrance Exams, JEE and other competitions
Solved India Study Solution Test Series, Practice Questions for NEET, MBBS Admission Tests from topics -
Evolution
Origin of life; Biological Evolution and Evidences for Biological Evolution from Palaeontology, Comparative Anatomy, Embryology and Molecular Evidence; Darwin’s Contribution, Modern Synthetic theory of Evolution; Mechanism of Evolution-Variation (Mutation and Recombination) and Natural Selection with examples, types of Natural Selection; Gene Flow and Genetic Drift; Hardy-Weinberg’s Principle; Adaptive Radiation; Human Evolution. 

Biology Solution and Guide: Evolution

India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 1 (Q. No. (1-10)

Question 1: Which of the following statements is correct regarding evolution of mankind?
a. Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man were living at the same time
b. Australopithecus was living in Australia
c. Homo erectus is preceded by Homo habits
d. None of these

Question 2: Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was –
a. Oparin
b. Haldane
c. Miler
d. Fox

Question 3: Fossilization can occur when –
a. Animals are buried and preserved by natural processes
b. Animals are destroyed by the scavengers
c. Animals are eaten up by predators
d. Animals are destroyed by environmental conditions

Question 4: Resistant spores of living organisms together with cosmic dust might have reached the earth accidentally from other planets of universe according to –
a. Theory of Abiogenesis
b. Theory of Biogenesis
c. Cosmozoic theory
d. Theory of Catastrophism

Question 5: Which era is dubbed as the age of prokaryotic microbes?
a. Precambrian
b. Phanerozoic
c. Archean
d. Proterozoic

Question 6: A baby has been born with a small tail. It is a case exhibiting –
a. Retrogressive evolution
b. Mutation
c. Atavism
d. Metamorphosis

Question 7: Primate closest to humans in evolution is –
a. Lemur
b. New World Monkey
c. Gorilla
d. Tree Shrew

Question 8: Which of the following was a land dinosaur?
a. Triceratops
b. Pteranodon
c. Archaeopteryx
d. Ichthyosaur

Question 9: Origin of primitive mammals occurred during –
a. Triassic period
b. Jurassic period
c. Cretaceous period
d. Tertiary period

Question 10: Which of the following statements is correct regarding evolution of mankind?
a. Homo erectus is preceded by Homo habilis
b. Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man were living at the same time
c. Australopithecus was living in Australia
d. None of these

India Study Solution
Biology Guide and Solution : Evolution
Solutions of MCQs Test Series – Set 1 (Q. No. 1 – 10)
Answer 1: (c).   Answer 2: (a).

Answer 3: (a) Hint: This is because if they are eaten or destroyed, they will be no more present in any form on earth and hence, cannot be fossilised.

Answer 4: (c).   Answer 5: (a).   Answer 6: (c).   Answer 7: (c).   Answer 8: (a).   Answer 9: (b).   Answer 10: (a).

 Genetics and Evolution - Biology Objective Questions, Test Series 
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