JEE Main 2020 Admit Card released: Download Hall Ticket from NTA JEE official site

19-Aug-20

JEE Main 2020 Admit Card (Hall Ticket)

The admit card for the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) 2020 Main has been released by National Testing Agency (NTA) on 17^th Aug, 2020. The candidates can download their hall ticket through official websites - nta.ac.in, jeemain.nta.nic.in. JEE Main examinations are scheduled to be held from September 1 to September 6, 2020 across the country.

Earlier, the Supreme Court had given the verdict that the JEE examination would not be postponed. The examination will be conducted in two shifts.

Latest update 19-Aug-2020 

JEE Main 2020, NEET 2020, JEE Advanced exam dates: SC lawyer requests PMO for postponement 

Candidates who will appear for the examination can download the admit card / hall ticket by following these simple steps given below.

How to download JEE Main 2020 Admit Card: 

1. Visit the official site of NTA JEE Main by clicking on the link given below.
2. Click on Download JEE Main 2020 Admit Card available on the home page.
3. A new page will open where candidates will have to enter the login credentials.
4. Your admit card will be displayed on the screen.
5. Check the admit card and click on download button there.
6. Keep a hard copy of the same for further need.

The JEE Main hall ticket will carry details of the exam venue, time slot etc. The three-hour exam will be conducted online for both paper - I for admission to engineering courses and paper - II for admission to architecture courses. This year, a different paper for B Plan will also be conducted. There will be two shifts, morning shift will begin at 9:30 am and the afternoon shift will begin at 2:30 pm.

India Study Solution  wishes BEST of LUCK to its readers and all prospective candidates.

Free preparation Medical and Engineering Entrance Exams | Thermo chemistry (Thermodynamics)

THERMODYNAMICS | THERMO CHEMISTRY

India Study Solution Test Series (Chemistry Objective Questions)

NEET, JEE IIT, AIIMS, NTSE | Engineering, BDS, MBBS Admission Test

Hi Guys,

Welcome back to your own site India Study Solution dedicated to engineering and medical aspirants.

As you are aware that in each set of India Study Solution test series we bring for you 10 new most important expected questions with their hints & solutions.

Each set is a combination of typically important some basic with some advanced level questions structured to enhance your confidence while preparing for NEET, JEE, COMEDK and any other Admission Tests, NTSE etc.

Many coaching institutes in India are charging thousands of rupees whereas you can get the same benefit on this site sitting at the comfort of your home totally  Free .

Friends, if you like the post please bookmark this site or if you have not subscribed us yet then please subscribe before you forget (it is free) so that you get it in your inbox whenever we publish more questions on any subject (Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics). You are also welcome to follow us on Face Book, Twitter.

Chemistry Practice Questions: Thermodynamics (Thermo-chemistry)

India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 4 (Q. No 31-40)

Question 31: Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?

a. N

b. N

c. H

d. C

Question 32: An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in P-V diagram. The net work done by the gas during the cycle is equal to:

a. 12P₁V₁

b. 6P

c. 5P

d. P

Question 33: Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition?

a. q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0

b. q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0

c. q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0

d. q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0

Question 34: The energy associated with a system by virtue of its position is

a. Gibbs Energy

b. Internal Energy

c. Kinetic Energy

d. Potential Energy

Question 35: For isothermal expansion in case of an ideal gas:

a. ∆G = ∆S

b. ∆G = ∆H

c. ∆G = -T.∆S

d. None of these 

Question 36: One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10 litres. The ∆E for this process is (R = 2 cal. mol

a. 1381.1 cal

b. Zero

c. 163. 7 cal

d. 9 L atm

Question 37: The difference between ∆H and ∆E on a molar basis for the combustion of Methane gas at T K (kelvin) would be:

a. Zero

b. - RT

c. -2RT

d. -3RT

Question 38: Which reaction, with the following values of ∆H, ∆S, at 400 K is spontaneous and endothermic?

a. ∆H = -48 kJ; ∆S = + 135 J/K

b. ∆H = -48 kJ; ∆S = -135 J/K

c. ∆H = + 48 kJ; ∆S = +135 J/K

d. ∆H = +48 kJ; ∆S = -135 J/K

Question 39: When a certain amount of ethylene was combusted, 6226 kJ heat was evolved. If heat of combustion of ethylene is 1411 kJ/mole, the volume of O

a. 296.5 ml

b. 296.5 litres

c. 6226 x 22.4 litres

d. 22.4 litres

Question 40: For the reaction

C₃H₈ (g) + 5O₂ (g) → 3CO₂ (g) + 4H₂O (l)

at constant temperature, ∆H – ∆E is

a. + RT

b. -3RT

c. +3RT

d. -RT

>>>>> <<<<<

India Study Solution MCQ Test Series - Hints and Solutions

tHERMODYNAMICS (THERMO-CHEMISTRY)

Set 4 (Q. No.31–40) Answers

https://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 31: b. Answer 32: c. Answer 33: d. Answer 34: d. Answer 35: c. Answer 36: b. Answer 37: c. Answer 38: c. Answer 39: b. Answer 40: b.

THERMODYNAMICS (Thermo-chemistry) - More India Study Solution Chemistry Test Series Questions

<< Previous (Q.No. 21-30)           (Q.No. 41-50) Next >>

EduNews: Board performance will not be considered for admissions by IITs this year

20-July-2020

The Human Resource Development Ministry on Friday announced relaxation in the admission to Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) this year by not considering Class XII board performance.

“For admissions to IITs, apart from qualifying the JEE (Advanced), the eligibility was to secure either minimum score of 75 per cent marks in class XII Board exams or rank among the top 20 percentile in their qualifying examinations,” said Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank, Minister for Human Resource Development.

Due to the partial cancellation of class XII exams by several Boards, Joint Admission Board (JAB) has decided to relax the eligibility criterion for JEE (Advanced) 2020 qualified candidates this time, he added.

Qualified candidates who have passed class XII examinations will now be eligible for admissions irrespective of marks obtained in the board exams.

Meanwhile, the Central Board of Secondary Education on Monday announced the board results of Class XII.

(Source: The Hindu)

Practice Questions Set 3: Organic Chemistry – principles, classification, nomenclature, purification and characterisation of organic compounds

Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles, Classification, IUPAC Nomenclature, Purifications, TECHNIQUES and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

India Study Solution Test Series (Practice Questions)

NEET, JEE Mains, JEE Advanced, NTSE | Engineering, BDS, MBBS Admission Test

Hi Guys,

Welcome back to your own site India Study Solution

India Study Solution test series Set-3: Here you have 10 new practice questions (Q. No. 21 - 30) with their hints & solutions from our Chemistry Solutions on chapter “Organic Chemistry – Basic Principles, Classification, Nomenclature, Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds”.

In each set you will find a combination of most important carefully selected basic with some advanced level questions, utmost required for doing online preparation of all MBBS Admission Tests, Engineering Entrance Exams such as NEET, JEE and also many other Admission Tests or competitive exams.

(Link to NEET and JEE syllabus for this chapter).

Friends, believe me ... if you are preparing for any medical (MBBS) or engineering (B.Tech) entrance exam and have still not attempted our previous questions / other sections then you are really missing something very important. So please find links for previous sets at the end or in the drop down menu above and go through them!    

Organic Chemistry  

(Basic Principles, Classification, IUPAC Nomenclature, Isomerism, Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds)

India Study Solution Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No 21-30)

Question 21: Steam distillation is applied to those organic compounds which are steam volatile and:

a. soluble in water

b. insoluble in water

c. sparingly soluble in water

d. insoluble in all solvents

Question 22: For the given alkane

The IUPAC name is

a. 1, 1 dimethyl-5-ethyl octane

b. 6-ethyl-2-methyl nonane

c. 4-ethyl-8-methyl nonane

d. 2-methyl-6-propyl octane

Question 23: There are several criteria for purity of organic compounds. Out of these which one is considered best?

a. Melting point

b. Microscopic examination

c. Mixed melting point

d. Colour

Question 24: The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be

(i) Benzene

(ii) Toluene

(iii) Chlorobenzene

(iv) Phenol

a. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)

b. (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)

c. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

d. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

Question 25: A compound which does not give a positive test in Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is:

a. Urea

b. Hydrazine

c. Phenyl hydrazine

d. Azobenzene

Question 26: Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?

a. –SO₃H

b. -COOH

c. –NO₂

d. –C ≡ N

Question 27: Duma’s method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form of:

a. NH₃

b. N₂

c. NaCN

d. (NH₄)₂ SO₄

Question 28: Complete combustion of 15 g of any organic compound gave 44 g of CO₂. What is the percentage of carbon in the organic compound?

a. 60

b. 80

c. 40

d. 50

Question 29: Which of the following statement is incorrect:

a. Tollen’s reagent can distinguish propene and propyne

b. Iodoform test can distinguish propanone and ethanal

c. Lucas reagent can distinguish 1-propanol and 2- propanol

d. NaHCO₃ can distinguish phenol and benzoic acid.

Question 30: Schiff’s and Piria method is used for the estimation of:

a. nitrogen

b. sulphur

c. halogens

d. oxygen 

India Study Solution - Hints and Solutions Chemistry MCQ Test Series

Organic Chemistry 

(Basic Principles, Classification, IUPAC Nomenclature, Isomerism, Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds)

Hints and Solutions of Organic Chemistry Test Series (MCQ) – Set 3 (Q. No.21–30)

https://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 21: b. Answer 22: b. Answer 23: c. Answer 24: c.

Answer 25: b (Hint: For Lassaigne’s test C-N bond must be present).

Answer 26: c. Answer 27: b. Answer 28: b. Answer 29: b. Answer 30: c.

Organic Chemistry: Basic Principles, Classification, IUPAC Nomenclature, Isomerism, Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds

 More questions to follow 

<< Previous (Q.No. 11-20)                              (Q.No. 31-40) Next >>

NEET and JEE 2020 latest updates - New Exam Dates announced by NTA

4-July-2020

National Testing Agency has released new exam dates for JEE Main, NEET and JEE Advanced 2020 Exams

Union HRD Minister Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal announced that the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) Main and National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET 2020) will now be held in September. As a consequence, JEE Advanced too stands postponed. The announcement was released based on a report submitted by a panel of experts after considering the prevailing situation of the Covid-19 pandemic.

Now, the JEE Main 2020 Entrance Exam for admission to undergraduate level engineering courses will be held from September 1 to 6 and JEE Advanced 2020 will be held on September 27.

NEET 2020 will now be held on September 13. This is the second time this year that the exams have been postponed. Originally these entrance exams were to be held in April and May, this year respectively. 

JEE Main 2020 will be held from July 18-23 while medical entrance test NEET 2020 will be conducted on July 26 and JEE Advanced 2020 is in August

Latest updates 19-Aug-2020

• JEE Main 2020, NEET 2020, JEE Advanced exam dates: SC lawyer requests PMO for postponement
• JEE Main 2020 Admit Card released: Download Hall Ticket from NTA JEE official site

India Study Solution MCQ Test Series - Electrostatics | Physics practice questions for JEE, NEET

Electrostatics

India Study Solution Physics Test Series (Prepare and Practice)

NEET, JEE, IIT, AIIMS, NTSE | Engineering, BDS, MBBS Admission Test

Hi Guys,

Welcome back to your own site India Study Solution

Here is your next Set of Questions (Q. No. 11-20) for chapter Electrostatics from Physics with their hints & solutions (given at the end).

(Please scroll down to find Electrostatics syllabus for NEET and JEE).

This is a very important chapter and so, we would request you to please bookmark this site or if you have not subscribed us yet then please subscribe before you forget (it is free) so that you get information whenever we publish more questions on this and other chapter / subject.

Hope it would help you to learn and enhance your confidence while preparing for NEET, JEE (IIT), AIIMS, COMEDK, NEST or any other Medical and Engineering Entrance Exams.

So, friends without wasting time let us start -

Electrostatics  

India Study Solution Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No 11-20)

Question 11: An electron is projected with certain velocity into an electric field in a direction opposite to the field. Then it is

a. accelerated

b. retarded

c. neither accelerated nor retarded

d. either accelerated or retarded

Question 12: If the electric potential at a point in free space is 5 x 10¹¹ V, what will be the electric field at that point

a. 4πε₀ x 10²² V/m

b. 12πε₀ x 10²⁰ V/m

c. 4πε₀ x 10²⁰ V/m

d. Nothing can be said

Question 13: In induction the charge induced in the near surface of a dielectric is

a. Equal and dissimilar

b. Greater and dissimilar

c. Lesser and dissimilar

d. Equal and similar

Question 14: Total electric force on an electric dipole placed in an electric field of a point charge is:

a. always zero

b. never zero

c. zero when mid-point of dipole coincides with the point charge

d. zero when dipole axis is along any electric line of force

Question 15: Which of the following is not the unit of charge?

a. farad

b. coulomb

c. stat coulomb

d. faraday

Question 16: +2C and +6C two charge are repelling each other with a force of 12N. If each charge is given -2C of charge, the value of the force will be

a. 4N (Attractive)

b. 4N (Repulsive)

c. 8N (Repulsive)

d. Zero

Question 17: A point charge +Q is placed at the centroid of an equilateral triangle. When a second charge +Q is placed at a vertex of the triangle, the magnitude of the electrostatic force of the central charge is 8N. The magnitude of the net force on the central charge when a third charge +Q is placed at another vertex of the triangle is:

a. zero

b. 4N

c. 4√2 N

d. 8 N

Question 18: Two parallel plates carry opposite charges such that the electric field in the space between them is in upward direction. An electron is shot in the space and parallel to the plates. Its deflection from the original direction will be

a. Upwards

b. Downwards

c. Circular

d. Elliptical

Question 19: Angle between equipotential surface and lines of force is

a. Zero

b. 180⁰

c. 90⁰

d. 45⁰

Question 20: Consider the four field patterns shown. Assuming there are no changes in the regions shown, which of the patterns represents a possible electrostatic field:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Electrostatics (Syllabus for NEET and JEE): Introduction, Electric Charges and their properties, Frictional Electricity, Charges and their Conservation, Unit of Charge, Conductors and Insulators, Presence of free Charges and bound Charges inside a Conductor, Charging by Induction, Coulomb’s Law, Dielectric Constant,  Forces between Multiple Charges, Electric Field, Electric Field lines, Electric Flux, Electric Dipole, Dipole in a Uniform External Field, Torque on a Dipole in a uniform electric field,  Continuous Charges distribution, Gauss’s Law and its applications, Electrostatic Potential, Potential due to Point Charge / Electric dipole / System of charges, Equipotential Surfaces, Potential Energy of a System of Charges/ External Field,       

India Study Solution Test Series

electrostatics 

Hints and Solutions of Physics Electrostatics MCQ Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11–20)

https://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 11: a.

Answer 12: d

Hint: Search for the relations of electric potential and electric field at a particular point at any point, electric potential due to charge Q is

Answer 13: c.

Answer 14: b

(Hint: Electric field of a point charge is non-uniform hence, net force can never be zero)

Answer 15: a. Answer 16: b.

Answer 17: d

(Hint: R = √8² + 8² + 2.8.8 cos120⁰ = 8N)

Answer 18: b. Answer 19: c.

Answer 20: b

(Hint: Pattern (1) can be eliminated because field lines cannot simultaneously originate from and converge at a single point; (3) can be eliminated because there are no charges in the region, and so there are no sources of field lines; (4) can be eliminated because electrostatic field lines do not close on themselves).

 Electrostatics: Further study

               << Previous (Q.No. 1-10)                                     (Q.No. 21-30)  Next >>