Best viewed in Google Chrome

Advertisement

Popular Posts

Services

NEET 2019 and JEE Mains 2019 complete schedules released by NTA - National Testing Agency

- No comments
NTA (National Testing Agency) has released the Exam Dates, Registration, Modes of Exam and other details for NEET 2019, JEE Main I and II 2019.
The revised schedule for NTA NEET 2019 and NTA JEE Mains were released on 21st August, 2018 by MHRD. Dates of registration, releasing admit card, exam date, modes of exam (format), results etc. of NEET 2019 and JEE Main 2019 are provided in the table below.
MHRD has decided against conducting the NEET 2019 examination twice next year. As per the earlier announcement by MHRD, NEET 2019 and JEE Main 2019 were to be conducted by NTA twice a year which has been changed now. Following a recommendation from Health Ministry, MHRD has scrapped the plan to conduct the examination in computer based format and twice a year. Now, NEET 2019 would be conducted on May 5, 2019 and the online application forms would begin from November 30, 2018. The results would be announced on June 5, 2019.
The forms for NTA JEE Main 2019 I would be released and begin from 1st September, 2019. There would be no change in the proposal of conducting NTA JEE Main 2019 in online format only. The examination would be conducted in multiple sessions from January 6, 2019 to January 20, 2019 and students would have the option of appearing on any of the days by slot booking and NTA JEE Main II 2019 would be conducted in April’19. 

NTA NEET 2019: New Rules and Changes
1. The only change for NEET 2019 is that the conducting authority has been changed. Till 2018, NEET for undergraduate medical and dental admissions i.e. NEET-UG was conducted by CBSE.
2. From 2019 onwards, the examination would be conducted by NTA. Candidates would be required to fill the online application forms on nta.ac.in. Details of how to apply for NEET NTA 2019 would be released when the forms are released on November 30.

Everything else for NEET NTA 2019 remains unchanged. For example:
1. NTA NEET 2019 examination would be a pen and paper test.
2. NTA NEET 2019 syllabus would remain the same as was the case for 2018.
3. NTA NEET 2019 eligibility is expected to remain the same.
4. As earlier, it will be conducted only once a year, which would be on May 5, 2019. 
5. NTA NEET 2019 would be conducted in all the 8 regional languages as well as in English, Hindi and Urdu.
Representative Image - NTA NEET 2019, NTA JEE Main 2019 details
For more details and registrations please visit official website of NTA (National Testing Agency) https://www.nta.ac.in

 Related Articles



Online solved Biology test series for NEET-UG, MBBS and BDS Admission Tests | Human Reproduction - Reproductive Health

- No comments
Free online preparation for NEET-UG, AIPMT, MCAT, JIPMER, MBBS and BDS Admission Tests - solved Biology test series on Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health.
Practice Questions | Confidence Booster | Online Preparation | Biology Solutions
Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health (Syllabus)
Human Reproduction: Male and female reproductive systems; Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary; Gametogenesis-spermatogenesis & oogenesis; Menstrual Cycle; Fertilization, embryo development up to blastocyst formation, implantation; Pregnancy and Embryonic Development (placenta formation); Parturition and Lactation (Elementary idea).
Reproductive Health: Need for reproductive health and prevention of STD; Population Explosion and Birth Control; Contraception and Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP); Amniocentesis; Infertility and assisted reproductive technologies – IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (Elementary idea).

Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health
India Study Solution Biology Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)

<<Prev Set 2 (Q.No 11-20)  

Question 21: Capacitation of sperms occur in –
a. Female genital tract and epididymis
b. Vas deferens and epididymis
c. Vas efferens and epididymis
d. Female genital tract and vas deferens

Question 22: Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, except –
a. Hepatitis-B
b. Genital herpes
c. HIV infections
d. All of these

Question 23: A foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo is called –
a. Chromosomal mapping
b. Assisted reproductive technology
c. Foeticides
d. Amniocentesis

Question 24: A zygote is completely divided into two by a cleavage furrow. The cleavage type is –
a. Equatorial
b. Meroblastic
c. Radial
d. Holoblastic

Question 25: The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
a. Third month
b. Fourth month
c. Fifth month
d. Sixth month

Question 26: The transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation is called –
a. ICSI
b. IUT
c. ZIFT
d. GIFT

Question 27: The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is –
a. Thyroxin
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Progesterone
d. Growth hormone

Question 28: Role of placenta is not to –
a. Provide nutrition to developing embryo
b. Secrete different hormones
c. Act as storage organ
d. Secretion of inhibin

Question 29: Vaults prevent conception by –
a. Phagocytosis of sperms
b. Releasing hormones
c. Killing ovum
d. Blocking the entry of sperms

Question 30: The Test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques?
a. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
b. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
c. Artificial Insemination
d. Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)

Biology Practice Questions : Human Reproduction and Reproductive Health
Answers of India Study Solution Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21–30)

Answer 21: (a).   Answer 22: (d).   Answer 23: (d).   Answer 24: (d).   Answer 25: (c).   Answer 26: (d).   Answer 27: (c).   Answer 28: (d).   Answer 29: (d).   Answer 30: (b).

 Human Reproduction - Reproductive Health More Questions Answers  

<<Prev (Q.No 11 - 20)                                (Q.No 31-40) Next>>

 Related Posts
BIOLOGY
CHEMISTRY
PHYSICS

Circular and Rotational Motions - MCQ Test Series solved questions for NEET-UG, IIT JEE, COMEDK, MBBS and BDS admission tests, Engineering Entrance Exams

- No comments

Physics: Circular Motion, Rotational Motion

Physics MCQ Test Series solved questions for NEET-ug, IIT JEE, COMEDK, MBBS and BDS admission tests, Engineering Entrance Exams and other such competitive exams.
Syllabus for NEET and IIT JEE:
Kinematics of Circular Motion; Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion; Centripetal Force; Examples: vehicle on level circular road, vehicle on baked track; Angular Velocity and is relation with Linear Velocity; Torque or Moment of Force and Angular Momentum; Laws of Conservation of Angular Momentum; Theorems of perpendicular axes and parallel axes; Kinematics of Rotational Motion about a fixed axis; Rolling Motion; General relation among Position-Velocity-Acceleration for Motion in a plane and Uniform Circular Motion; Centrifugal Force; Motion in a vertical circle; Rotational Motion of a rigid body; Moment of Inertia; Angular Impulse.

Solved MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)
Question 21: The angular speed of a fly wheel making 120 rev/min is:
a. 2Ï€ rad/s
b. 4Ï€2 rad/s
c. π rad/s
d. 4Ï€ rad/s

Question 22: A child is swinging a swing, minimum and maximum heights of swing from earth’s surface are 0.75 m and 2 m respectively. The maximum velocity of this swing is –
a. 5 m/s
b. 10 m/s
c. 15 m/s
d. 20 m/s

Question 23: An aeroplane is flying with a uniform speed of 100 m/s along a circular path of radius 100 m. The angular speed of the aeroplane will be:
a. 1 rad/s
b. 2 rad/s
c. 3 rad/s
d. 4 rad/s

Question 24: A block of mass m slides down along the surface of the bowl from the rim to the bottom as shown in fig. The velocity of the block at the bottom will be –
https://www.indiastudysolution.com















Question 25: When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle:
a. Its velocity remains constant
b. No force acts on it
c. No work is done on it
d. No acceleration is produced on it

Question 26: A 1 kg ball is rotated in a vertical circle by using a string of length 0.1 m. If the tension in the string at the lowest point is 29.4 N, its angular velocity at that position is –
a. 7 rads-1
b. 14 rads-1
c. 3.5 rads-1
d. 25.6 rads-1

Question 27: A cyclist moves in a circular track of radius 100 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2. Then the maximum speed with which the cyclist take a turn without leaning inwards is:
a. 14.0 m/s
b. 140 m/s
c. 1.4 m/s
d. 9.8 m/s

Question 28: If all objects on the equator of earth feel weightless then the duration of the day will nearly become –
a. 6.2 hr
b. 4.4 hr
c. 2.2 hr
d. 1.41 hr

Question 29: Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same time t. The ratio of the angular speeds of the first to the second car is:
a. 1: 1
b. m1: m2
c. r1: r2
d. m1m2: r1r2

Question 30: A 2 kg stone is swung in a vertical circle by attaching it at the end of a string of length 2m. If the string can withstand a tension 140.6 N, the maximum speed with which the stone can be rotated is –
a. 22 ms-1
b. 44 ms-1
c. 33 ms-1
 Circular and Rotational Motions More Questions Answers  

<<Prev (Q.No 11 - 20)                                (Q.No 31-40) Next>>


 Recent Posts
BIOLOGY
CHEMISTRY
PHYSICS

Contact Us

- No comments

India Study Solution - CONTACT US
If you have any query or suggestion (general) then please feel free to email us to -
Suggestion / Query related to any post or article to be dropped in the Comment Box below that particular post.
Thank you.



Online Chemistry test series questions answers for NEET, IITJEE, Medical preparation | Hydrogen and its Compounds

- No comments
Chemistry solved Test Series, MCQ practice questions for preparation of NEET, IIT Joint Entrance Examinations, JEE Main and Advanced, Medical and Engineering Entrance Exams, MBBS admission tests, NEST and other competitions.

Hydrogen and its Compounds (Topics / Syllabus):
Position of hydrogen in the periodic table; Discovery, Occurrence, Preparation, Properties and Industrial Applications of Hydrogen; Dihydrogen - Isotopes of hydrogen, Properties, Preparation and Uses of dihydrogen; Heavy Hydrogen or Deuterium; Tritium; Hydrides and their classification; Water - structure of water and ice, properties of water, hard and soft water, Hydrogen Peroxide; Heavy water.   

Chemistry Solutions and Guide : Hydrogen and its Compounds

MCQ Test Series – Practice Questions - Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)
Question 21: In which property listed below hydrogen does not resemble alkali metals?
a. Nature of oxide
b. Reducing nature
c. Tendency to form cation
d. Presence of one electron in valence shell

Question 22: Heavy water (D2O) freezes at:
a. 00C
b. 3.80C
c. -3.80C
d. 380C

Question 23: H2 gas is liberated when H2O2 reacts with –
a. Acidified KMnO4
b. O3
c. Acidified K2Cr2O7
d. HCHO

Question 24: Hydrogen gas behaves as an oxidising agent in its reaction with:
a. Chlorine
b. Potassium
c. Nitrogen
d. Sulphur

Question 25: Pure water can be obtained from sea water by:
a. Centrifugation
b. Plasmolysis
c. Reverse osmosis
d. Sedimentation

Question 26: Volume strength of 500 ml solution containing 3.4 g of H2O2 is –
a. 11.2
b. 6.8
c. 1.12
d. 2.24

Question 27: In basic medium, H2O2 acts as an oxidising agent in its reaction with:
a. Cr2(SO4)3
b. Ag2O
c. K3[Fe(CN)6]
d. K4[Fe(CN)6]

Question 28:Which isotope of hydrogen is radioactive in nature?
a. Protium only
b. Deuterium only
c. Deuterium and tritium
d. Tritium only

Question 29: Among the following, identify the compound which cannot act as both oxidising and reducing agents?
a. H2O2
b. H2
c. SO2
d. Cl2

Question 30: Hydrogen combines with other elements by:
a. Losing an electron
b. Gaining an electron
c. Sharing an electron
d. a, b, c all are correct




India Study Solution - Chemistry Practice Questions
hydrogen and its compounds
Solutions of Chemistry MCQ Test Series MCQ Practice Questions – Set 3 (Q.No. 21 – 30)
Answer 21: (a).

Answer 22: (b) Hint: Freezing point of heavy water is at 3.80C.

Answer 23: (d).

Answer 24: (b) Hint: An oxidising agent is a species which accepts an electron or electrons. Hydrogen accepts an electron from potassium when it forms KH.
H2 + 2K → 2KH (K+H-).

Answer 25: (c).   Answer 26: (d).

Answer 27: (a) Hint: In basic medium, H2O2 oxidises Cr2(SO4)3

2Cr3+ + 10H- + 3H2O2 → 2CrO2-4 + 8H2O
Cr – Oxidation No. = + 3         Cr – Oxidation No. = + 6

Answer 28: (d).   Answer 29: (b).   Answer 30: (d).

 Hydrogen and its Compounds More Questions Answers  

<<Prev (Q.No 11 - 20)                                (Q.No 31-40) Next>>


 Recent Posts
BIOLOGY
CHEMISTRY
PHYSICS