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West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam WBJEE 2019 to be held on April 21 next year

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The West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam board is likely to hold the entrance test (WBJEE 2019) for admission to engineering colleges and pharmacy institutes on April 21 next year.
West Bengal JEE board chairman Malayendu Saha announced the dates while releasing the 2018 exam results.
"We have tentatively fixed April 21, 2019, which is a Sunday," Saha said.
The board will hold mock counseling across 33 centers so that the modalities of ecounselling are clear to the candidates and they can opt for the institute and the discipline of their preference.
"The mock counseling will start from May 28 and continue till June 2," Saha said.
The details of the centers will be uploaded on the website, www.wbjeeb.in very soon.
"The e-counseling is likely to start from June 4, provided the Plus II results of all boards are declared by then," Saha said.
The West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education is still to declare the Plus II results. The CBSE board, too, is yet to declare the Plus II results.
The board has planned to hold the counselling early so that the admission process can be started early and the problem of vacancy, specially, in the private engineering colleges can be avoided. For the same reason, the results were declared early, a board official said.
Last year the results entrance test was declared on June 5. This year, WBJEE was held on April 22, 2018 and the results were announced on May 23, 2018.
Here it may be recalled that in 2017 the WBJEE was held on April 23.
(Source: Telegraph, edited)

 Updated: 18-12-2018

 EduNews: WBJEE 2019 date to change

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Classification of Elements, Periodic Table and Periodicity in Properties - Solved MCQ Test Series for NEET-ug, IITJEE, AIPMT and all Entrance Exams, Admission Tests

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Classification of Elements, Periodic Table and Periodicity in Properties

Solved Practice Questions and MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q.No 21-30)

Fully solved practice questions (MCQ Test Series) for study and exam-preparation of all Medical and Dental Entrance Exams, Engineering Entrance Exams; JEE, Admission Tests and other competitions.

Syllabus / Randomly selected Topics:
Genesis of Periodic Classification, Earlier Attempts of Classification of Elements, Mendeleev’s Periodic Law and Original Periodic Table, Modern Periodic Law and Long Form of Periodic Table, (Modified Form of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table), Naming the Elements, Periodic Table of Elements (Long Form representing Electron Configurations), Position of an Element on the Basis of Electronic Configuration, Nomenclature of Elements with Atomic Number > 100, Electronic Configurations of Elements and the Periodic Table, Periodic Trends in Properties of Elements or Atomic Properties or Periodic Properties of Elements, The Screening Effects or Shielding Effect, Effective Nuclear Charge, Ionisation Enthalpy or Ionisation Potential, Atomic Radii, Ionic Radii, Ionization Enthalpy, Electron Gain Enthalpy, Electron Affinity, Electronegativity, Valence, Electronic Configurations and Types of Elements: s, p, f-Blocks
Chemistry: Classification of Elements, Periodic Table and Periodicity in Properties
Fully Solved Multiple Choice Questions  – Set 3 (Q. No. 21-30)

For previous and next questions click on the links below:
<<Prev (Q.No 11 - 20)                                (Q.No 31-40) Next>>

Question 21: An element of atomic mass 40 has 2, 8, 8, 2 as the electronic configuration. Which one of the following statements regarding this element is not correct?
a. It forms an amphoteric oxide     b. It belongs to IIA group
c. It belongs to IV period   d. It has 20 neutrons

Question 22: Which of the following has the greatest electron affinity?
a. I b. Br   c. F    d.Cl

Question 23: The triad not present in Group VII of Mendeleev’s table
a. Li, Na, K b. Fe, Co, Ni  c. Ru, Rh, Pd    d. Os, Ir, Pt

Question 24: Correct order of radii
 a. Na > Mg > Al   b. Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
c. I+ < I < I-  d. All of these

Question 25: If ionisation energy of an atom is 10 eV & EA is 6.8 eV electronegativity of the species on Pauling scale.
a. 4   b. 3   c. 2   d. 1

Question 26: The first ionisation energy will be maximum for:
a. Be   b. He   c. Li   d. Fe

Question 27: The first ionisation enthalpies of four consecutive elements present in the second period of the periodic table are 8.3, 11.3, 14.5 and 13.6 eV respectively. Which one of the following is the first ionisation enthalpy of nitrogen?
a. 13.6   b. 14.5   c. 11.3   d. 8.3

Question 28: Correct order of 1 ionisation potential among following elements Be, B, C, N, O is
a. B < Be < C < O < N    b. B < Be < C < N < O
c. Be < B < C < N < O   d. Be < B < C < O < N

Question 29: One of the following groups is not found in the Mendeleev’s periodic table
a. Zero b. I   c. VII   d. VIII

Question 30: Which pair of elements has the same characteristic chemical properties?
a. Z = 13, Z = 22   b. Z = 3, Z = 11
c. Z = 4, Z = 24     d. Z = 2, Z = 4
 Also See 


Classification of Elements, Periodic Table and Periodicity in Properties
Hint & Solutions of Test Series Questions Set 3 (Q. No. 21 - 30)
http://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 21: (a) Answer 22: (d) Answer 23: (a) Answer 24: (d)
Answer 25: (b)
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Answer 26: (b) Answer 27: (b) Answer 28: (a) Answer 29: (a) Answer 30: (b)
 Classification of Elements and Periodic Table - Chemistry Practice Questions  

<<Prev (Q.No 11 - 20)                                (Q.No 31-40) Next>>


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EduNews: IITJEE Main 2018 cut-off score is lowest ever

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The cut-off score used for this year's IIT JEE Main to determine general category candidate's eligibility for JEE Advanced is the lowest ever and caps a four-year downward trend.
Professors at the IIT, which admit students on the basis of their JEE Advanced scores, suggested two possible reasons. One: an increase in available IIT seats; Two: top students' growing preference for non-engineering courses such as medicine. All those who scored more than 74 in the IIT JEE Main, out of a total marks of 360,will be allowed to take the JEE Advanced 2018.
Year
Cut-off score (out of 360) for JEE Advanced
2018
74
2017
81
2016
100
2015
105
2014
115
2013
113
When JEE Main and JEE Advanced were started in 2013, the cut-off used was 113. This increased to 115 the following year but has been falling every year since then.
Dr.Panigrahi of IIT Kharagpur and former JEE Advanced chairperson, said that in 2013, the IITs wanted the 1.5 lakh best IIT JEE Main candidates to take the JEE Advanced. In 2018, they want 2.2 lakh to do so. This could be because the institutes along with their seats have increased from about 9500 in 2013 to almost 12000 now.
Also, the number of students taking IITJEE Main has been declining from 13 lakh in 2013 to about 11 lakh in 2018. "Demand for engineering courses is falling. Large numbers of seats remain vacant in engineering colleges," Rajeev Kumar former professor of IIT Kharagpur now in JNU, said.
This fact is also supported by the data since number of students taking the NEET (National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test), which determines admission to undergraduate medical and dental courses, has grown from 8 lakh in 2016 to 13 lakh in 2018.
(Source: Telegraph, edited)

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Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction - Objective questions answers | Test series with solutions

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Physics objective questions answers, MCQ Test Series with solutions for NEET, AIPMT, IIT JEE, other Medical and Engineering Entrance Exams; Admission Tests.

Physics Objective Questions with Solutions | Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction (Syllabus)

Force and Inertia; Law of Inertia; Newton’s First Law of Motion; Center of Mass; Momentum; Newton’s Second Law of Motion; Impulse; Newton’s Third Law of Motion; Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum and its applications; Variable Mass; Free Body Diagrams; Pulleys; Equilibrium of Concurrent Forces; Constraint Equations; Pseudo Force; Static and Kinetic Friction; Laws of Friction; Rolling Friction; Centripetal Force and its applications; Impulse; Collision
Newton’s Laws of Motion and Friction
Solved Multiple Choice Questions Test Series (MCQ) – Set 3 (Q. No 21-30)

Question 21: Two weights W1 and W2 are suspended from the ends of a light string passing over a smooth fixed pulley. If the pulley is pulled up at an acceleration g. The tension in the string will be:













Question 22: A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 600 and with speed of 10 m/s and returns at the same angle. The impact time is 0.2 sec. Calculate force exerted on the wall:







www.indiastudysolution.com - image
a. 150√3 N 
b. 100 N
c. 50√3 N
d. 75√3 N

Question 23: Ten coins each of mass 10 gm are placed one above the other. The reaction force exerted by 7th coin from the bottom on the 8th coin is –
a. 0.3 N
b. 0.2 N
c. 0.4 N
d. 0.7 N

Question 24: Consider the situation shown in fig. The wall is smooth but the surface of A and B in contact are rough. The friction on B due to A in equilibrium – 
India Study Solution - www.indiastudysolution.com
a. Is upward
b. Is downward
c. Is zero
d. The system cannot remain in equilibrium

Question 25: A particle moves in the xy plane under the action of a force F such that the value of its linear momentum (P) at any time t is, Px = 2 cos t, Py = 2 sin t. The angle θ between P and F at that time t will be:
a. 00
b. 300
c. 900
d. 1800
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Question 26: A rocket of mass 6000 kg is set for vertical firing. If the exhaust speed is 1000m/sec. The rate of mass of gas ejected to supply a thrust needed to give the rocket an initial upward acceleration of 20.2 m/s2 is –
a. 150 kg/sec
b. 160 kg/sec
c. 28 kg/sec
d. 180 kg/sec

Question 27: If the coefficient of friction of a surface is √3, then the angle of inclination of the plane to make a body on it just to slide, is –
a. 300
b. 450
c. 600
d. 7500

Question 28: In the shown in the figure, the pulley has a mass 3m. Neglecting friction on the contact surface, the force exerted by the supporting rope AB on the ceiling is:
India Study Solution - www.indiastudysolution.com graphics
a. 6 mg      
b. 3 mg
c. 4 mg
d. None of the above

Question 29: Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 16 kg at rest to act upon by same force. The ratio of times required to attain the same speed is –
a. 1: 1
b. 4: 1
c. 1: 4
d. 1: 2

Question 30: Two masses A and B 0f 10 kg and 5 kg respectively are connected with a string passing over a frictionless pulley fixed at the corner of a table as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction of A with the table is 0.2. The minimum mass of C that may be placed on A to prevent it from moving is equal to:
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a. 15 kg
b. 10 kg
c. 5 kg
 Newton's Laws of Motion, Friction - More Practice Questions  


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