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Atomic Structure | Structure of Atoms - Solved MCQ Test Series for IITJEE, NEET and other Entrance Exams

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India Study Solution MCQ Test Series (Multiple Choice Questions) expected in NEET, IIT JEE, Medical and Engineering Entrance Exams; Admission Tests. 
(Click on the link at the end to download Hints and Answers in Pdf format.)

Chemistry MCQ Test Series Objective Questions on Atomic Structure / Structure of Atoms 

www.indiastudysolution.com graphicsSub-atomic Particles; Discovery of Fundamental Particles; Cathode Rays; Positive Rays; Rutherford Model; Moseley Experiment - Atomic Number; Isotopes and Isobars; Concept of Shells and Sub-shells; Electromagnetic Radiations; Emission Spectra; Hydrogen Spectrum; Atomic Models; Bohr’s Model of Atom; Sommerfeld’s Extension of Bohr Theory; Dual Nature of Matter and Light; Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle; Wave Mechanical Model of Atom; Concept of Orbital; Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom; Shapes of s, p and d Orbitals; Pauli’s Exclusion Principle; Aufbau Principlr; Hund’s Rule of Maximum Multiplicity (Orbital Diagrams); Electronic Configuration of Elements; Photoelectric Effect; Nuclear Stability; The Whole Number Rule and Packing Fraction; The Magic Numbers.       

Chemistry Objective Questions: Atomic Structure | Structure of Atom
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ Test Series) – Set 3 (Q. No.21-30)

Question 21: If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is 2000 Å, what is the energy in ergs?
a. 9.94 x 10-12
b. 9.94 x 10-10
c. 4.97 x 10-12
d. 4.97 x 10-19

Question 22: Who first time ruled out the existence of definite paths of electron?
a. de Broglie
b. Heisenberg
c. Neils Bohr
d. Einstein

Question 23: An atom has x energy level then total number of lines in its spectrum are:
a. 1 + 2 + 3………(x + 1)
b. 1 + 2 + 3………(x)2
c. 1 + 2 + 3………(x – 1)
d. (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 4)

Question 24: Bohr advanced the idea of:
a. Stationary electrons
b. Stationary nucleus
c. Stationary orbits
d. Elliptical orbits

Question 25: Brackett series is produced when the electrons from outer orbits jump to
a. Third orbit
b. Second orbit
c. Fourth orbit
d. Fifth orbit

Question 26: No. of visible lines when an electron returns from 5th orbit to ground state in H spectrum:
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 10

Question 27: Who modified Bohr Theory by introducing elliptical orbits for electron path?
a. Hund
b. Thomson
c. Rutherford
d. Sommerfeld

Question 28: The main energy shell in which the electron is present is given by –
a. Principal quantum number
b. Azimuthal quantum number
c. Spin quantum number
d. Magnetic quantum number

Question 29: Which of the following is not permissible?
a. n = 4, l = 3, m = 0
b. n = 4, l = 2, m = 1
c. n = 4, l = 4, m = 1
d. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0

Question 30: The longest wavelength in Balmer series is –
a. 6563 Å
b. 18,650 Å
c. 7700 Å
d. 3,600 Å




India Study Solution - Solved Chemistry Objective Questions
Atomic Structure (Structure of Atom)
Solutions of Multiple Choice Questions Test Series (MCQ) – Set 3 (Q. No. 21 – 30)
Answer 21: (a).   Answer 22: (b).   Answer 23: (c).   Answer 24: (c).   Answer 25: (c).   Answer 26: (c).   Answer 27: (d).   Answer 28: (a).   Answer 29: (c).   Answer 30: (a).

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CBSE to declare IIT-JEE Main 2018 results on April 30 afternoon

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The results for the Indian Institutes of Technology-Joint Entrance Exam (IIT-JEE) Main 2018 will be announced today on April 30 by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). Around fourteen lakh students who appeared for the IIT-JEE Main 2018 online and offline examination can check their results for both JEE Main which are expected to be declared late afternoon today on the official websites - jeemain.nic.in, cbseresults.nic.in or results.nic.in
The future of these engineering aspirants who have appeared for the exam on April 8 (offline) and April 15 will be decided after CBSE releases the result.
The scores of candidates -- All India and category ranks -- obtained will be displayed. The rank card can also be downloaded by candidates for admission purposes.


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How and where to check your IIT JEE Main result

  • CBSE announces the result at jeemain.nic.in and cbseresults.nic.in.
  • To check the result, you have to log in and enter your JEE Main roll number and date of birth.
  • The result which is displayed on the screen can be downloaded as the rank card.
  • Use the option to print the rank card. It is advised to take a copy.
  • It is also better to thoroughly check all details mentioned on the rank card.

How to confirm if you qualified for JEE Advanced or not? (IIT JEE Advanced 2018)
The JEE main is conducted every year for admission to various engineering and architecture courses in NITs, IITs and other CFTIs across the country. The exam is also an entrance examination for JEE Advanced.
The candidates who clear the JEE Main 2018 will be considered qualified for appearing in JEE Advanced 2018 examination. The JEE Advanced examination is conducted for admission to IITs.
The CBSE Board will also release the JEE main 2018 result along with the mark on - cbseresults.nic.in and results.nic.in.
Since JEE Main is the screening test for JEE Advanced, the top 2,24,000 candidates who successfully clear it must seriously look into preparing for JEE Advanced 2018.
CBSE will announce the JEE Main cutoff 2018 which will specify the scores required to be eligible to apply and appear for JEE Advanced 2018 which will be held on May 20 .
You can fill the JEE Advanced application form 2018 between May 2 and May 7.
Eligibility for NITs, IIITs and CFTIs Admissions
The Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) will conduct common counseling for the IITs, NITs, IIITs and GFTIs from June 19 tentatively.
Allotment will be done according to the ranks and preferences selected during JoSAA registration.
Candidates who have a valid rank in the JEE Main or JEE Advanced are eligible to apply for the admissions in these institutes.

Animal Kingdom - Classification of Animals: Solved Biology Practice Questions, Test Series for NEET-ug, AIPMT, Entrance Exams, Admission Tests

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Welcome Friends!

If you are searching for Online Biology, Chemistry, Physics study materials, notes, expected questions or a complete FREE Online Guide for NEET, MCAT or any other Medical Entrance Examination then you have arrived at the right place!

Below given are Solved Biology Objective Questions (India Study Solution MCQ Test Series) for preparation of NEET-ug, AIPMT and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental Admission Tests for MBBS, BDS and other competitions.
(Scroll down to see answers)

Animal Kingdom - Classification of Animals (Syllabus)
Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate up to phyla level and chordate up to classes level (three to five salient features and at least two examples). Protozoa. Porifera. Coelenterata (Cnidaria). Ctenophora. Platyhelminthes. Aschelminthes. Annelida. Arthropoda. Mollusca. Echinodermata. Hemichordata. Uro-chordata. Pisces. Amphibia. Reptilia. Aves. Mammalia.  


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Biology Objective Questions: Animal Kingdom and Classification of Animals

 Solved Biology Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No.21 - 30)


Question 21: Body of molluscs is
a. Unsegmented
b. Covered by a calcareous shell
c. Divided into distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump
d. All of these

Question 22: A sponge can be distinguished by the presence of
a. Coelenteron
b. Choanocytes
c. Tentacles
d. Calcareous skeleton

Question 23: Larval stage of urochordata is known as –
a. Tadpole
b. Miracidium
c. Cercaria
d. Cydippid

Question 24: Incorrect set is –
a. Torpedo – electric organs
b. Trygon – poison sting
c. Carcharodon – claspers on pelvic fins
d. Betta – no operculum

Question 25: Which one is the best silk?
a. Erisilk
b. Mulberry silk
c. Tusser silk
d. None of the above

Question 26: Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it?

a. All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
b. All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side
c. All sponges are marine and have collared cells
d. All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing

Question 27: Which of the following character is exclusive to mammals?
a. Presence of a four chambered heart
b. Homoiothermic condition
c. Respiration by lungs
d. Presence of a diaphragm

Question 28: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
a. Ventral nerve cord
b. Closed circulatory system
c. Segmentation
d. Pseudocoelom

Question 29: First vertebrates attempted to transit from water to land are –
a. Reptiles
b. Aves
c. Amphibians
d. Insects

Question 30: Branchiostoma is an example of –
a. Hemichordata
b. Urochordata
c. Cephalochordata
d. None of the above

India Study Solution
Answers of Biology NEET Questions: Animal Kingdom and Classification of Animals
Solutions of MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q. No. 21 – 30)

Answer 21: (d).   Answer 22: (b).   Answer 23: (a).   Answer 24: (d).   Answer 25: (b).   Answer 26: (b).   Answer 27: (d).   Answer 28: (d).   Answer 29: (c).   Answer 30: (b).

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Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure - Online solved Chemistry Test Series, Questions Answers for IITJEE, NEET, Entrance Exams

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Chemistry online solved objective test series (MCQ) with hints helpful for preparing IITJEE, NEET, Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, Joint Entrance Exams, NEST and other competitions.

Practice Questions Answers (Objective Questions with Solutions)

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Syllabus :
Chemical combination; Kossel-Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding; Lattice Energy; Covalent Bond; Octet Rule; Ionic and electrovalent Bond; Electrovalency; Covalency; Writing formula of an ionic compound; Coordinate Bond; Metallic Bond; Bond parameters - bond length, bond angle, bond enthalpy, bond order, resonance structures, polarity of bonds; The Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory; Valence Bond Theory; Geometry of molecules; Hybridisation; Molecular Orbital Theory; Bonding in some Homonuclear Diatomic Molecules; Hydrogen Bonding
Chemistry Solved Test Series: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
MCQ Test Series – Set 3 (Q No.21-30)
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Question 21: The molecule that deviates from octet rule is –
a. CCl4
b. BF3
c. MgO
d. NCl3

Question 22: The sigma and π-bonds present in benzene ring are:
a. Three sigma and three pi
b. Six sigma and three pi
c. Six pi and three sigma
d. Nine sigma and three pi

Question 23: NH3 and BF3 combine readily because of the formation of:
a. A covalent bond
b. A hydrogen bond
c. A coordinate bond
d. An ionic bond

Question 24: Which of the following bonds has the highest energy?
a. S-S
b. O-O
c. Se-Se
d. Te-Te

Question 25: Which is not true for resonance?
a. Identical bonding
b. Identical arrangement of atoms
c. Same number of paired electrons
d. Structure with nearly same energies

Question 26: Which of the following contains both electrovalent and covalent bonds?
a. MgCl2
b. H2O
c. NH4Cl
d. None

Question 27: Which is a covalent compound?
a. RbF
b. MgCl2
c. CaC2
d. NH3

Question 28: Which one of the following species is planar and non-planar with two lone pairs of electrons on the central atom?
a. ClF3
b. XeF5-
c. PCl5
d. BeF5

Question 29: Hybridisation of carbon in CO is –
a. sp3
b. dsp2
c. sp
d. sp2

Question 30: The high boiling point of water is due to:
a. Its high specific heat
b. Hydrogen bonding between the molecules
c. Weak dissociation of water molecules
d. Its high dielectric constant





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