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Physics Objective Questions: Projectile Motion - Solved Test Series for preparation of Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams, JEE

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Physics expected objective questions, test series with solutions for preparation Medical and Dental Entrance Exams, Engineering Entrance Exams; all JEE, NEET preparation, IIT JEE, and other such competitive exams.
Syllabus
Projectile Motion; Projectile Motion in an inclined plane; Relative Motion between two Projectiles; Motion in two dimensions; Cases of Uniform Velocity and Uniform Acceleration-Projectile Motion; Motion of objects in three dimensional space

Physics Guide: Projectile Motion

Multiple Choice Questions – Set 2 (Q. No. 11-20)

Question 11: two stones having different masses m1 and m2 are projected at an angle α and (900 – α) with same speed from same point. The ratio of their maximum heights is:
a. 1 : 1
b. 1 : tan α
c. tan α : 1
d. tan2 α : 1

Question 12: In the motion of a projectile freely under gravity its –
a. Total energy is conserved
b. Momentum is conserved
c. Energy and momentum both are conserved
d. None is conserved

Question 13: At the maximum height of a projectile, the velocity and acceleration are –
a. Parallel to each other
b. Anti-parallel to each other
c. Perpendicular to each other
d. Inclined to each other at 450

Question 14: A projectile is thrown with speed 40 ms-1 at angle θ from horizontal. It is found that projectile is at same height at 1s and 3s. What is the angle of projection?
a. tan-1 (1/√2)
b. tan-1 (1/√3)
c. tan-1 (√3)
d. tan-1 (√2)

Question 15: A person standing at some distance from a high tree, throws a stone taking aim at a fruit hanging from that tree, and at the same instant of time the fruit begins to fall freely. Of the following statement which is correct?
a. The stone always remains above the falling fruit
b. The stone strikes the fruit if the stone is thrown with a definite minimum velocity
c. The stone moves below the falling stone
d. The stone always hits the fruit

Question 16: The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 10% by increasing its speed of projection, without changing the angle of projection. The percentage increase in the horizontal range will be:
a. 20%
b. 15%
c. 10%
d. 5%

Question 17: A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally at constant speed. When air resistance is taken into consideration, the bomb –
a. Falls to earth exactly below the aeroplane
b. Falls to earth behind the aeroplane
c. Falls to earth ahead of the aeroplane
d. Flies with the aeroplane

Question 18: A stone is just dropped from the window of a train moving along a horizontal straight track with uniform speed. The path of the stone is –
a. A parabola for an observer standing by the side of the track
b. A horizontal straight line for an observer inside the train
c. Both of the above are true
d. None of the above is true

Question 19: In a typical projectile motion:
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Tangential acceleration at the top most point P of the trajectory is:
a. g
b. g cos θ
c. zero
d. None of these

Question 20: A ball is thrown at an angle θ with the horizontal. Its horizontal range is equal to its maximum height. This is possible only when the value of tan θ is:
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
Projectile Motion - Physics Objective Questions and Solved Test Series 

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Common Final MBBS Exam - National Exit Test NEXT gets Union Cabinet’s approval

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Common Final MBBS Exam - National Exit Test (NEXT)

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The Union Cabinet has approved a common final MBBS exam across India to be called the National Exit Test (NEXT) and left it to states to decide whether practitioners from alternative health systems may prescribe modern medicines. The Cabinet has also approved an amendment to provide for one year imprisonment and a fine up to Rs 5 lakh for any unauthorised practice of medicine, a move that the health ministry said was intended to address concerns about the safety in healthcare and take strict action against quackery.
The cabinet in a meeting on Wednesday 28th March, chaired by PM Modi, approved these amendments in the National Medical Commission (NMC) bill that seeks to create a new regulatory body for medicine to replace the existing Medical Council of India (MCI).
The amendments follow recommendations by a parliamentary standing committee that had rejected the bill's proposal for a separate national licentiate exam for MBBS doctors to be able to practice medicine. The standing committee had called for the final year MBBS exam to serve as the licentiate exam.
The cabinet has also accepted the standing committee's recommendation that the government regulate fees of up to 50 percent of seats in private medical colleges.
The cabinet has approved an amendment that removes the provision of a 'bridge course' proposed in the original bill to allow practitioners of ayurveda and homeopathy, among other alternative forms of medicine, to prescribe modern medicines.
The amendments also include an increase in the number of state representatives in the NMC - the nominees of states and union territories in the commission have been increased from 3 to 6. The NMC will be made up of 25 members of whom at least 21 will be doctors, the government said.
(Source: The Telegraph, edited)

NEET Biology solved test series - Genetics and Evolution

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Hi Friends,

Welcome back to your own portal India Study Solution (www.indiastudysolution.com)

You have landed among a continuous series of some very important, most carefully selected Very Short Answer type, Medium and then Long Answer type questions followed by our very popular result-oriented India Study Solution MCQ Test Series with their answers and solutions from Biology Chapter - Genetics and Evolution.

If you are an aspirant of NEET, any other Medical Entrance Exam, MCAT, or even any similar Test etc. then please don't skip any of these questions/series. Links for previously posted and further questions are given hereunder. 

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Biology (Zoology) Solution and Guide: Evolution
India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11-20)


Question 11: Which ancestor of man for the first time began the bipedal locomotion?
a. Cro-Magnon man
b. Australopithecus
c. Java-ape man
d. Peking man

Question 12: Oparin’s theory is based on –
a. Artificial synthesis
b. Spontaneous generation
c. God’s creation
d. Panspermia

Question 13: The Darwinian variations are –
a. Small and directionless
b. Random and directional
c. Small and directional
d. Random and directionless

Question 14:Chemical origin of life was experimentally supported by –
a. Oparin and Haldane
b. Urey and Miller
c. Francesco and Spallanzani
d. Thales and Plato

Question 15: Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by –
a. Binocular vision
b. Chromosome number
c. Dental formula
d. Cranial capacity

Question 16: Man (Homo) originated in –
a. Palaeocene
b. Miocene
c. Oligocene
d. Pleistocene

Question 17: Industrial melanism was highlighted by –
a. Mimosa pudica
b. Triticum aestivum
c. Biston betularia
d. Rock python
e. Polar bear

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Question 18: 1st life on earth was –
a. Cyanobacteria
b. Chemoheterotrophs
c. Autotrophs
d. Photoautotrophs

Question 19: Who discovered the use of the weapon and tools first?
a. Homo habilis
b. Handy man
c. Both a and b
d. Homo erectus

Question 20: According to Oparin, which one of the following as not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
a. Methane
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Water vapour


India Study Solution
Biology Guide and Solution : Evolution (Genetics and Evolution)
Solutions of Biology Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11 – 20)
http://www.indiastudysolution.com

Answer 11: (b).   Answer 12: (a).   Answer 13: (c).   Answer 14: (b).   Answer 15: (b).   Answer 16: (d).   Answer 17: (c).   Answer 18: (b).   Answer 19: (c).   Answer 20: (b).

 Genetics and Evolution - Biology Objective Questions, Test Series 

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Aadhaar not needed for NEET 2018 Application

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The Supreme Court ruled on Wednesday, 7th March that Aadhaar cannot be made mandatory for submitting National Medical Entrance Test NEET application form.

The court limited is interim order to the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET), through which students for undergraduate medical courses are selected.
NEET 2018 exam – which will be conducted by CBSE is scheduled to be held on May 6. The last date for submission of NEET 2018 application form is March 9. The court said CBSE should accept alternative proof of identity such as passport, driving licence, voter identity card etc. instead of insisting on Aadhaar cards.
Attorney-General K.K Venugopal, representing the Center, submitted that neither the government nor the Aadhaar issuer had asked the CBSE to make the card mandatory for NEET. The Attorney-General said the CBSE had on its own volition decided to insist on Aadhaar cards.  
However, in the same breath, Venugopal said the authorities had received complaints of a large number of impersonations for the NEET. 
Updated 9th March 2018: The CBSE has extended the last date for submitting the National Medical Entrance Exam - NEET 2018 applications to March 12.

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CBSE makes NEET a must for foreign MBBS, also disallow students of NIOS and other Private Boards

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The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued a notification on Friday, 9th Feb 2018 on NEET 2018 introducing some new requirements and changes:
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Students wanting to pursue MBBS or any other undergraduate medicine courses in foreign universities will have to clear the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) from this year, 2018.
The notification also bars students paying out of open schools from taking NEET. This means students passing from National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) will not be able to take the NEET 2018, to be conducted by the CBSE. Private students passing out from other boards are also not allowed to take the NEET.
"The ministry of health has decided that candidates who wish to pursue MBBS or BDS from foreign medical colleges and foreign medical colleges need to qualify the NEET," said the information bulletin issued by the CBSE.
The Medical Council of India (MCI) which regulates medical education said the provision of NEET qualification has been introduced to ensure that only meritorious students go for medical education to foreign countries. According to one MCI sources, "Indian students mostly go to former USER countries, China and the Philippines. When they come back, they appear in an exam to be able to practice. But less than 25% students qualify the exam to be able to medical practice. The NEET qualification will ensure quality to some extent."
An NIOS official said the students paying out of the institutions were allowed to take NEET till last year. The MCI sources said the NIOS students, who pursue education in the correspondence mode, did not have practical classes and so could not be allowed to appear for the NEET (National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test).
As per the CBSE notice to be eligible for NEET one needs to have studied physics, chemistry, biology or bio-technology in the past two years of their 12 - year schooling.

 Some More Information about NEET
v   The state governments of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana have decided to offer the 15% all India quotas in medical colleges run by them. As the two states had earlier not participated in the programme, students from these states could not apply for admission under 15% quota in other states. Now that the two states have decided to implement the reservation, medical aspirants from these two states can apply for MBBS admission in colleges in other states under the all India quota.
v   The CBSE will hold the NEET in English and other regional languages like - Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Marathi, Odia, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
v   The results of NEET 2018 will be declared on 5th June 2018. NEET clearance is a must for all students seeking to study MBBS, BDS, and undergraduate medicine in India and abroad.

 Related Articles
ü  NEET and JEE Main to be conducted twice a year by NTA instead of CBSE
ü  NEET 2018 questions in regional languages

NEET Questions Bank: Biology Solutions on Human Physiology - Locomotion and Movement

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Human Physiology - Locomotion and Movement

(NEET Syllabus): Origin Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular; Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle contraction; Skeletal system and its functions (To be dealt with the relevant practical of Practical syllabus); Joints; Disorders of muscular and skeletal system-Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy, Arthritis, Osteoporosis, Gout.

HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY (Locomotion and Movement)
Theoretical Questions - TQ 3 (Q. No.12 - 15)

Very Long Answer Type Questions

Question.12: How does calcium affect the process of muscle contraction?

Question.13: Explain sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.

Question.14: Explain the bones of fore limbs.

Question.15: Describe the various types of joints present in human body with examples.

Answer 12. Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states that contraction of muscle fibres takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor neuron. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibers connected to it constitutes a motor unit. The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor-end plate.
A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.
Increase in Ca2+ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin.
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge.
This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of "A" band. The "Z" line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction. It is clear from the above steps, that during shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the I bands get reduced, whereas the "A" bands retain the length.
The myosin, releasing the ADP and Pi  goes back to its relaxed state. A new ATP binds and the cross-bridge is broken. The ATP is again hydrolysed by the myosin head and the cycle of cross-bridge formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding.
The process continues till the Ca2+ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae resulting in the masking of actin filaments. This causes the return of "Z" lines back to their original position, i.e., relaxation. The reaction time of the fibres can vary in different muscles.

Answer 13. Two groups of workers (A.F.Huxley and Ralph Niedergerke 1954; H.E.Huxley and Jean Hanson 1954) proposed the sliding filament theory. The essential features of this theory are as follows:
1. During muscle contraction, the thin myofilaments slide inward towards the H-zone.
2. The sarcomere shortens, but the lengths of thin and thick myofilaments do not change.
3. The crossbridges of the thick myofilaments connect with portions of actin of the thin myofilaments. The myosin cross bridges move on the surface of thin myofilaments and the thin and thick myofilaments slide past each other.
4. As the thin myofilaments move past the thick myofilaments, the H-zone narrows and even disappears when the thin myofilaments meet at the centre of the sarcomere. Thus, the length of the sarcomere decreases during contraction. Size of I band also decreases.
5. The lengths of the thick and thin myofilaments do not change during muscle contraction.

Answer 14. Each arm consists of the following 30 bones:
1 humerus, 1 radius, 1 ulna, 8 carpal, 5 metacarpal bones, 5 digits (14 phalanges). Phalangeal formula: 2,3,3,3,3.
Upper rounded end of the humerus is called head which articulates into the glenoid cavity of the pectoral girdle. A greater and a lesser tubercles occur near the head.
The shaft of the humerus has a V-shaped deltoid ridge at about its middle. A pully like trochlea is present between two ridges. Its upper end has a larger olecranon process that forms the eminence of our elbow. The head of the radius articulates with the humerus. Each wrist is composed of eight carpals which are arranged in two rows: scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum and pisiform in proximal row and trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and humate in distal row.

Answer 15. The structural arrangements of tissues by which bones are joined together are called joints. According to the mobility they are classified as fibrous or fixed or immovable joints, cartilaginous or slightly movable joints and synovial or freely movable joints.
1. Fibrous or Immovable Joints: In this type of joints there is no movement between the bones concerned. As the name suggests, there is white fibrous tissue between the ends of the bones. Examples of this type include - the joints between the bones of skull called sutures and the joints between the teeth and the maxilla and teeth and mandible.
2. Cartilaginous or Slightly Movable Joints: In this type there is a pad of white fibrocartilage between the ends of the bones taking part in the joints which allows for very slight movement. Movement is only possible because of compression of pad of cartilages. Examples of cartilaginous joints include the pubic symphysis of pubis and the joints between the vertebrae (intervertebral discs).
3. Synovial or Freely Movable Joints: A considerable movement is possible at all synovial joints. Synovial joints are of six types:
(i). A gliding joint- It is the simplest of the synovial joints. The articular surfaces of two bones are usually flat, permitting only back-and-forth and side-to-side movements. Gliding joints are found between the carpal bones and between the tarsal bones.
(ii). A hinge joint - It allows movement primarily in one plane. In a hinge joint spool (reel) surface of one bone fits into the concave surface of another bone. The elbow, the knee, ankle and interphalangeal hints are examples of hinge joints.
(iii). A pivot joint- This joint also allows movement in only one plane. In a pivot joint rounded or pointed bone fits into a shallow depression in another bone. The primary movement at a pivot joint is rotation.
(iv). Condyloid or ellipsoid joint- Allows movement in two planes, back & forth & side-to side. The joints between the metacarpals and phalanges (metacarpo-phalangeal joint) of the fingers are examples of ellipsoid joints.
(v). A saddle joint allows the same movements as an ellipsoid joint, but the movements are free. The joint between the carpal and metacarpal of thumb of the hand is an example of saddle joint.
(vi). A ball-and-socket joint- One bone of this joint forms a rounded head while the other bone forms a cup shaped structure into which the head fits. It allows free movement in all directions. It is most movable joint. Examples: hip joint and shoulder joint.

 Human Physiology: Locomotion and Movement - Biology Objective Questions 

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