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EduNews: CBSE guidelines about Aadhaar requirement to apply JEE Main 2018

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Aadhaar requirement for Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) - 2018

CBSE JEE Main (Joint Entrance Examination Main) Unit
In reference to the Admission Notification for JEE Main 2018 by CBSE regarding the provision of Aadhaar at the time of filling online application for Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) 2018, following guidelines / clarifications have been issued as per the latest CBSE notice (on 7th Dec’17):
1. The use of Aadhaar for the applicants of JEE (Main) 2018 will result in accuracy of the applicants’ details. This will also help in ascertaining identities of the applicants at the examination centres in a convenient and hassle free manner. Aadhaar obviates the need for producing multiple documents to prove one’s identity.
2. The provisions of Aadhaar Act and regulations under the Act have come into effect from 14th Sept’16 and according to CBSE circular, notifications to the effect were published in their official gazette. Section 57 of Aadhaar Act 2016 permits the use of Aadhaar Number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose pursuant to any law or any contract to this effect.
GUIDELINES FOR AADHAAR AUTHENTICATION BEFORE APPLYING JEE MAIN 2018
3. The notice says accordingly, CBSE has decided to use Aadhaar for the applicants of JEE Main 2018, and hereby notifies the following -
a.   Applicants, who are in the possession of Aadhaar, shall enter Aadhaar number, name, date of birth, gender in online application for JEE (Main) 2018 for the purpose of his/her identity and authentication thereof.
b.    Applicants not yet enrolled for Aadhaar, are hereby required to make application for Aadhaar enrolment in case he/she is entitled to obtain Aadhaar as per section 3 Aadhaar Act. Such applicant may visit any Aadhaar enrolment center to get enrolled for Aadhaar.
4. The above provisions shall be applicable in all states except J&K, Assam & Meghalaya.
5. The applicants who have passed or appearing in Class 12 examination from the states of J&K, Assam & Meghalaya need to enter the passport number, ration card number, bank account number (nationalised bank) or any valid Govt. identity number provided they should select the city of examination in these states only.           
Further Contact
Executive Director (JAB)
H-149, Sector-63
Noida - 201309
Tel: 7042399520, 7042399521, 7042399526
Web: www.jeemain.nic.in
E-mail: jeemain@nic.in
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EduNews: Odisha government confirms participation in the Joint Entrance Examination Main | JEE Main 2018

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EduNews: Odisha joins JEE Main 2018

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The Odisha government on Thursday confirmed is participation in the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE Main 2018) conducted by CBSE and urged students from Odisha to enrol themselves for this. According to CBSE notification, online application process for JEE Main 2018 will start from December 1.

Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Haryana and Nagaland are some other states which also decided to join Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main 2018) system recently.

How to apply JEE Main - 2018 (Joint Entrance Examination Main 2018), eligibility, deadline etc click:

Circular and Rotational Motions - Solved Physics Test Series, MCQ with Solutions

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Physics MCQ Test Series, Objective Questions with hints, solutions expected in Medical and Dental Entrance Exams, Engineering Entrance Exams; JEE, MBBS Admission Tests and such competitive exams.
Practice questions with solutions from some of these topics (randomly selected):
Kinematics of Circular Motion; Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion; Centripetal Force; Examples: vehicle on level circular road, vehicle on baked track; Angular Velocity and is relation with Linear Velocity; Torque or Moment of Force and Angular Momentum; Laws of Conservation of Angular Momentum; Theorems of perpendicular axes and parallel axes; Kinematics of Rotational Motion about a fixed axis; Rolling Motion; General relation among Position-Velocity-Acceleration for Motion in a plane and Uniform Circular Motion; Centrifugal Force; Motion in a vertical circle; Rotational Motion of a rigid body; Moment of Inertia; Angular Impulse.

Physics solved test series: Circular Motion, Rotational Motion

Multiple Choice Questions – Set 2 (Q No 11-20)

MCQ 11: A spool is pulled horizontally by two equal and opposite forces as shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct ?
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a. The centre of mass moves towards left
b. The centre of mass moves towards right
c. The centre of mass remains stationary
d. The net torque about the centre of mass of the spool is zero

MCQ 12: An aeroplane revolves in a circle above the surface of the earth at a fixed height with speed 100 km/hr. The change in velocity after completing ½ revolution will be –
a. 200 km/hr
b. 150 km/hr
c. 300 km/hr
d. 400 km/hr

MCQ 13: Angular momentum of a body is equal to the product of –
a. Moment of inertia and angular velocity
b. Centripetal force and radius
c. Linear velocity and angular velocity
d. Mass and angular velocity

MCQ 14: A car of mass m is taking a circular turn of radius ‘r’ on a frictional level road with a speed v. In order that the car does not skid –
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MCQ 15: A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 22 revolutions in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?
a. π2 ms-2 and direction along the radius towards the centre
b. π2 ms-2 and direction along the radius away from the centre
c. π2 ms-2 and direction along the tangent to the circle
d. π2/4 ms-2 and direction along the radius towards the centre

MCQ 16: A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If its angular speed is 2 π rad s-1, the centripetal force on it is:
a. 4 π N
b. 8 π N
c. 4 π4 N
d. 8 π2 N

MCQ 17: Two identical hollow spheres roll down two inclined planes of same height but of different angles of inclination. Then, they reach the bottom –
a. With same speeds and in same time
b. With different speeds and in different times
c. With same speed but in different times
d. With different speeds in same time

MCQ 18: A mass m is revolving in a vertical circle at the end of a string of length 20 cm. By how much times does the tension of the string at the lowest point exceed the tension at the topmost point –
a. 2 mg
b. 4 mg
c. 6 mg
d. 8 mg

MCQ 19: Work done by friction in case of pure rolling:
a. Is always zero
b. Is always positive
c. Is always negative
d. May be positive, negative or zero

MCQ 20: A car is travelling at 36 kmph on a road. If µ = 0.5 between the tyres and the road, the minimum turning radius of the car is – (g = 10 ms-2)
a. 20m
b. 25m
c. 30m

d. 35m


 Circular Motion and Rotational Motion - More solved MCQ Questions, Test Series 

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Biology Objective Questions Test Series with Solutions: Reproduction in Organisms

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India Study Solution Biology online test series with fully solved practice objective questions (MCQ) helpful to prepare for NEET and Medical Entrance Exams, Dental, MBBS Admission Tests, MCAT, NEST and many other competitions.      
Solved objective questions MCQ from some of these topics covered -
Reproduction in Organisms (Syllabus)
Reproduction, a characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species; Modes of reproduction – Asexual and sexual; Asexual reproduction; Modes-Binary fission, sporulation, budding, gemmule, fragmentation; vegetative propagation in plants.

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Biology: Reproduction in Organisms

Multiple Choice Questions – Set 1 (Q. No. 1-10)

Question 1: Pollination by ants is –
a. Melacophily
b. Myrmecophily
c. Entomophily
d. Ornithophily

Question 2: The type of reproduction which will occur in an organism depend upon –
a. Morphology of the organism
b. Habitat and morphology of the organism
c. Morphology and physiology of the organism
d. The organism’s habitat, internal physiology and genetic makeup

Question 3: In vegetative propagation by tubers, which of following remains constant through generations –
a. Morphology
b. Vigour only
c. Vigour and morphology only
d. Morphology, vigour and disease resistance

Question 4: Study of pollen grains is –
a. Palaeobotany
b. Palaeontology
c. Palynology
d. Pomology

Question 5: Product of sexual reproduction generally generates –
a. Prolonged dormancy
b. New genetic combination leading to variation
c. Large biomass
d. Longer viability of seeds

Question 6: Diploid chromosome number in meiocytes of fruit fly is –
a. 8
b. 380
c. 12
d. 20

Question 7: The period from birth to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in animal’s life before they can reproduce sexually is called –
a. Vegetative phase
b. Somatic phase
c. Juvenile phase
d. Senescence phase

Question 8: If number of chromosomes in an egg cell is 8, then the number of chromosomes in endosperm is –
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 24

Question 9: When offspring is produced by a single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation, then it is called –
a. Unisexual reproduction
b. Bisexual reproduction
c. Hermaphrodite sexual reproduction
d. Asexual reproduction

Question 10: The offspring produced through which of the following process are not exactly similar to their parents?
a. Parthenogenesis
b. Asexual reproduction
c. Sexual reproduction
d. Dizygotic twins

India Study Solution - Biology Objective Questions with Solutions
biology Test Series: reproduction in organisms
Solutions of Biology Test Series Questions – Set 1 (Q. No. 1 – 10)

Answer 1: (c).   Answer 2: (d).   Answer 3: (d).   Answer 4: (c).   Answer 5: (b).   Answer 6: (a).   Answer 7: (c). Answer 8: (d).   Answer 9: (d).   Answer 10: (c).

 Reproduction in Organisms - More Objective Questions Test Series with Answers

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JEE Main - 2018 Admission Notification by CBSE

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Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)

Admission Notice Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) - 2018

CBSE has issued a notice that in pursuance of MHRD, Govt of India, the 6th Joint Entrance Examination Main (JEE Main) 2018 will be conducted on 8-April-18 (Sunday) by the JEE  Apex Board for admission to undergraduate engineering programmes in NITS, IITs and other centrally funded technical institutions etc.
The states of Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Uttarakhand, and Nagaland & Odisha have joined JEE (Main) system. Therefore, the candidates seeking admission to the institutions in these states, which were earlier admitting based on their state level examinations, are also advised to fill in JEE (Main) - 2018 application form online.
The JEE (Main) will also be an eligibility test for JEE (Advanced ),  which the candidate has to take if he/she is aspiring for admission to the undergraduate programmes offered by the IITs& ISM. The candidates are advised to see the JEE (Advanced) website www.jeeadv.ac.in for information related to JEE (Advanced).
The detailed information bulletin containing details of examination, syllabus, eligibility criteria to appear and more wool be available on JEE (Main) website www.jeemain.nic.in on 20.11.2017. The aspiring candidates are requested to download the information bulletin from above mentioned website only and read the same carefully before applying.  The eligibility criteria for JEE (Main) and JEE (Advanced) are different. Candidates need to read the information bulletin carefully and ensure their eligibility as per the criteria laid down for JEE (Main) and JEE (Advanced).
The process of Aadhaar authentication before submission of online form will be notified by CBSE separately.
How to Apply, Deadline
The aspiring candidates have to apply online only through JEE (Main) website www.jeemain.nic.in.
The online application starts: 1-Dec-2017.
Last date for application: 1-Jan-2018.
Last date for payment of fees: 2-Jan-2018.
Further Contact
Executive Director (JAB)
H-149, Sector-63
Noida - 201309
Tel: 7042399520, 7042399521, 7042399526
Web: www.jeemain.nic.in
E-mail: jeemain@nic.in 

Biology Objective Questions Test Series - Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants

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Free online solved Biology objective questions (MCQ) test series and practice questions on Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants for various competitive examinations, NEET, AIPMT, MCAT, NEST, admission tests.

Diversity in The Living World - Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants

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Biology MCQ : Biology Objective Questions : Practice Test Series with Solutions
India Study Solution Test Series – Set 2 (Q. No.11 - 20)

Question 11: Horse tails are a group of
a. Algae    b. Gymnosperms    c. Pteridophytes   
d. Bryophytes

Question 12: In which fact Albugo is similar to animals
a. In being parasitic
b. In movement
c. In reserve food
d. In reproduction

Question 13: After germination the megaspore give rise to
a. Female gametophyte
b. Antheridia
c. Male gametophyte
d. Antherozoid

Question 14: What is the common name of Sphagnum?
a. Peat moss
b. Trough moss
c. Bog moss
d. All the above

Question 15: The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by –
a. Albugo candida
b. Puccinia graminis tritici
c. Ustilago nuda
d. Cleviceps purpurea

Question 16: Canada balsam is obtained from
a. Pinus excels
b. Abies balsemia
c. Cedrus deodara
d. Junipers

Question 17: Bread mould is the common name of
a. Batrachospermum
b. Rhizopus
c. Agaricus
d. Bacillus

Question 18: Cytotaxonomy is connected with
a. Chemical composition of cytoplasm
b. Cell organelles
c. Cytochromes
d. Shape and size of cells

Question 19: What is necessary for seed formation?
a. Heterospory
b. Growth of the megaspore within sporangium
c. Both of above
d. Growth of microspore within the sporangium

Question 20: Viruses posses
a. Ribosomes to synthesise protein
b. Organelles for its vital mechanisms
c. Either DNA or RNA
d. None of these


India Study Solution
Biology: Diversity in the Living World - Plant Kingdom, Classification of Plants
Solutions of India Study Solution MCQ Test Series – Set 2 (Q.No.11 – 20)

Answer 11: (c).   Answer 12: (c).   Answer 13: (a).   Answer 14: (d).   Answer 15: (b).    Answer 16: (b).   Answer 17: (b).   Answer 18: (b).   Answer 19: (c).   Answer 20: (c).

Plant Kingdom and Classification of Plants  - More Objective Questions, Test Series with Solutions
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